Capitol Building Maryland Register

Issue Date:  November 1, 2024

Volume 51  •  Issue 22  • Pages 957 — 1028

IN THIS ISSUE

Governor

Regulations

Special Documents

General Notices

Pursuant to State Government Article, §7-206, Annotated Code of Maryland, this issue contains all previously unpublished documents required to be published, and filed on or before October 11, 2024 5 p.m.
 
Pursuant to State Government Article, §7-206, Annotated Code of Maryland, I hereby certify that this issue contains all documents required to be codified as of October 11, 2024.
 
Gail S. Klakring
Administrator, Division of State Documents
Office of the Secretary of State

Seal

Information About the Maryland Register and COMAR

MARYLAND REGISTER

   The Maryland Register is an official State publication published every other week throughout the year. A cumulative index is published quarterly.

   The Maryland Register is the temporary supplement to the Code of Maryland Regulations. Any change to the text of regulations published  in COMAR, whether by adoption, amendment, repeal, or emergency action, must first be published in the Register.

   The following information is also published regularly in the Register:

   • Governor’s Executive Orders

   • Attorney General’s Opinions in full text

   • Open Meetings Compliance Board Opinions in full text

   • State Ethics Commission Opinions in full text

   • Court Rules

   • District Court Administrative Memoranda

   • Courts of Appeal Hearing Calendars

   • Agency Hearing and Meeting Notices

   • Synopses of Bills Introduced and Enacted by the General Assembly

   • Other documents considered to be in the public interest

CITATION TO THE MARYLAND REGISTER

   The Maryland Register is cited by volume, issue, page number, and date. Example:

• 19:8 Md. R. 815—817 (April 17, 1992) refers to Volume 19, Issue 8, pages 815—817 of the Maryland Register issued on April 17, 1992.

CODE OF MARYLAND REGULATIONS (COMAR)

   COMAR is the official compilation of all regulations issued by agencies of the State of Maryland. The Maryland Register is COMAR’s temporary supplement, printing all changes to regulations as soon as they occur. At least once annually, the changes to regulations printed in the Maryland Register are incorporated into COMAR by means of permanent supplements.

CITATION TO COMAR REGULATIONS

   COMAR regulations are cited by title number, subtitle number, chapter number, and regulation number. Example: COMAR 10.08.01.03 refers to Title 10, Subtitle 08, Chapter 01, Regulation 03.

DOCUMENTS INCORPORATED BY REFERENCE

   Incorporation by reference is a legal device by which a document is made part of COMAR simply by referring to it. While the text of an incorporated document does not appear in COMAR, the provisions of the incorporated document are as fully enforceable as any other COMAR regulation. Each regulation that proposes to incorporate a document is identified in the Maryland Register by an Editor’s Note. The Cumulative Table of COMAR Regulations Adopted, Amended or Repealed, found online, also identifies each regulation incorporating a document. Documents incorporated by reference are available for inspection in various depository libraries located throughout the State and at the Division of State Documents. These depositories are listed in the first issue of the Maryland Register published each year. For further information, call 410-974-2486.

HOW TO RESEARCH REGULATIONS

An Administrative History at the end of every COMAR chapter gives information about past changes to regulations. To determine if there have been any subsequent changes, check the ‘‘Cumulative Table of COMAR Regulations Adopted, Amended, or Repealed’’ which is found online at http://www.dsd.state.md.us/PDF/CumulativeTable.pdf. This table lists the regulations in numerical order, by their COMAR number, followed by the citation to the Maryland Register in which the change occurred. The Maryland Register serves as a temporary supplement to COMAR, and the two publications must always be used together. A Research Guide for Maryland Regulations is available. For further information, call 410-260-3876.

SUBSCRIPTION INFORMATION

   For subscription forms for the Maryland Register and COMAR, see the back pages of the Maryland Register. Single issues of the Maryland Register are $15.00 per issue.

CITIZEN PARTICIPATION IN
THE REGULATION-MAKING PROCESS

   Maryland citizens and other interested persons may participate in the process by which administrative regulations are adopted, amended, or repealed, and may also initiate the process by which the validity and applicability of regulations is determined. Listed below are some of the ways in which citizens may participate (references are to State Government Article (SG),

Annotated Code of Maryland):

   • By submitting data or views on proposed regulations either orally or in writing, to the proposing agency (see ‘‘Opportunity for Public Comment’’ at the beginning of all regulations appearing in the Proposed Action on Regulations section of the Maryland Register). (See SG, §10-112)

   • By petitioning an agency to adopt, amend, or repeal regulations. The agency must respond to the petition. (See SG §10-123)

   • By petitioning an agency to issue a declaratory ruling with respect to how any regulation, order, or statute enforced by the agency applies. (SG, Title 10, Subtitle 3)

   • By petitioning the circuit court for a declaratory judgment

on the validity of a regulation when it appears that the regulation interferes with or impairs the legal rights or privileges of the petitioner. (SG, §10-125)

   • By inspecting a certified copy of any document filed with the Division of State Documents for publication in the Maryland Register. (See SG, §7-213)

 

     Maryland Register (ISSN 0360-2834). Postmaster: Send address changes and other mail to: Maryland Register, State House, Annapolis, Maryland 21401. Tel. 410-260-3876. Published biweekly, with cumulative indexes published quarterly, by the State of Maryland, Division of State Documents, State House, Annapolis, Maryland 21401. The subscription rate for the Maryland Register is $225 per year (first class mail). All subscriptions post-paid to points in the U.S. periodicals postage paid at Annapolis, Maryland, and additional mailing offices.

     Wes Moore, Governor; Susan C. Lee, Secretary of State; Gail S. Klakring, Administrator; Tracey A. Johnstone, Editor, Maryland Register; Tarshia N. Neal, Subscription Manager; Tami Cathell, Help Desk, COMAR and Maryland Register Online.

     Front cover: State House, Annapolis, MD, built 1772—79.

Illustrations by Carolyn Anderson, Dept. of General Services

 

     Note: All products purchased are for individual use only. Resale or other compensated transfer of the information in printed or electronic form is a prohibited commercial purpose (see State Government Article, §7-206.2, Annotated Code of Maryland). By purchasing a product, the buyer agrees that the purchase is for individual use only and will not sell or give the product to another individual or entity.


 

Closing Dates for the Maryland Register

Schedule of Closing Dates and Issue Dates for the
Maryland Register .....................................................................  959

 

COMAR Research Aids

Table of Pending Proposals ...........................................................  960

 

Index of COMAR Titles Affected in This Issue

COMAR Title Number and Name                                                  Page

05        Department of Housing and Community
               Development ..................................................................  966

08        Department of Natural Resources .............................  963, 968

10        Maryland Department of Health ................................  963, 969

13A     State Board of Education ...........................................  963, 973

14        Independent Agencies .....................................  964, 978—984

15        Maryland Department of Agriculture ................................  984

25        Office of the State Treasurer .............................................  964

27        Critical Area Commission for the Chesapeake and Atlantic Coastal Bays 996

31        Maryland Insurance Administration ................................  1022

34        Department of Planning ...................................................  1025

 

PERSONS WITH DISABILITIES

Individuals with disabilities who desire assistance in using the publications and services of the Division of State Documents are encouraged to call (410) 974-2486, or (800) 633-9657, or FAX to (410) 974-2546, or through Maryland Relay.

 

The Governor

EXECUTIVE ORDER 01.01.2024.35

   (Renewal of Executive Order 01.01.2024.09)…………..........962

 

Final Action on Regulations

08 DEPARTMENT OF NATURAL RESOURCES

FISHERIES SERVICE

General  963

10 MARYLAND DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH

BOARD OF DENTAL EXAMINERS

Dental Radiation Technologist  963

BOARD OF PHARMACY

Pharmacy Technicians .  963

HEALTH SERVICES COST REVIEW COMMISSION

Uniform Accounting and Reporting System for Hospitals and Related Institutions    963

13A STATE BOARD OF EDUCATION

SPECIAL INSTRUCTIONAL PROGRAMS

Programs for Homeless Children .  963

14 INDEPENDENT AGENCIES

MARYLAND ENERGY ADMINISTRATION

Maryland Efficiency Standards .  964

MARYLAND HEALTH BENEFIT EXCHANGE

Small Business Health Options Program ..  964

25 OFFICE OF THE STATE TREASURER

TREASURY MANAGEMENT

Policy Regarding the Investment of Public Money by the State of Maryland    964

 

Withdrawal of Regulations

10 MARYLAND DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH

BOARD OF DENTAL EXAMINERS

Dental Assistants .  965

10 MARYLAND DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH

Fees and Continuing Education .  965

 

Proposed Action on Regulations

05 DEPARTMENT OF HOUSING AND COMMUNITY DEVELOPMENT

Public Health Impact Assessments

Procedure .  966

08 DEPARTMENT OF NATURAL RESOURCES

FISHERIES SERVICE

General  968

10 MARYLAND DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH

MARYLAND HEALTH CARE COMMISSION

Maryland Trauma Physician Services Fund .  969

13A STATE BOARD OF EDUCATION

CHILD AND FAMILY DAY CARE

Outdoor, Nature-Based Child Care License Pilot Program .. 973

14 INDEPENDENT AGENCIES

PRESCRIPTION DRUG AFFORDABILITY BOARD

Cost Review Study Process .  978

MARYLAND TECHNOLOGY DEVELOPMENT CORPORATION

Investment Programs .  980

Seed Funds .  980

Equitech Growth Fund .  980

Pava LaPere Innovation Acceleration Grant Program ..  982

MARYLAND HEALTH BENEFIT EXCHANGE

Eligibility Standards for Enrollment in a Qualified Health Plan, Eligibility Standards for APTC and CSR, and Eligibility Standards for Enrollment in a Catastrophic Qualified Health‎ Plan in the Individual Exchange    983

Termination, Cancellation, and Rescission of Qualified Health Plan    984

15 MARYLAND DEPARTMENT OF AGRICULTURE

SOIL AND WATER CONSERVATION

Agricultural Operation Nutrient Management Plan Requirements    984

Food Processing Residuals Utilization Program ..  985

27 CRITICAL AREA COMMISSION FOR THE CHESAPEAKE AND ATLANTIC COASTAL BAYS

CRITERIA FOR LOCAL CRITICAL AREA PROGRAM DEVELOPMENT

General Provisions .  996

Development in the Critical Area .  996

Water-Dependent Facilities and Activities .  996

Forest and Woodland Protection .  996

Agriculture .  996

Surface Mining in the Critical Area .  996

Natural Parks .  996

Habitat Protection Areas in the Critical Area .  996

Directives for Local Program Development  996

Directives for Updating Critical Area Maps .  996

Variances .  996

Renewable Energy Generating Systems .  996

General Provisions .  996

State and Local Agency Actions Resulting in Minor Development on Private Lands or Lands Owned by Local Jurisdictions    996

General Approval of State and Local Agency Programs Which Result in Minor Development on Private Lands or Lands Owned by Local Jurisdictions 996

State or Local Agency Actions Resulting in Major Development on Private Lands or Lands Owned by Local Jurisdictions    996

State Agency Actions Resulting in Development on State-Owned Lands    996

Conditional Approval of State or Local Agency Programs in the Critical Area    996

Commission Review, Decision Process, and Time
Frames
.  996

Appeals .  996

PROJECT APPLICATIONS

Notification of Project Applications .  996

31 MARYLAND INSURANCE ADMINISTRATION

PROPERTY AND CASUALTY INSURANCE

Notices of Cancellation, Nonrenewal, Premium Increase, and Reduction in Coverage    1022

34 DEPARTMENT OF PLANNING

HISTORICAL AND CULTURAL PROGRAMS

Historical and Cultural Museum Assistance Program .. ...1025

 

Special Documents

MARYLAND HEALTH CARE COMMISSION

MEDICAL CARE DATA BASE (MCDB) DATA SUBMISSION MANUAL………………………………1026

DEPARTMENT OF THE ENVIRONMENT

Water And Science Administration………………..……1026

General Notices

STATE COLLECTION AGENCY LICENSING BOARD

Public Meeting .  1027

MARYLAND DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH/STATE COMMUNITY HEALTH WORKER ADVISORY COMMITTEE

Public Meeting .  1027

COMMISSION ON CRIMINAL SENTENCING POLICY

Public Meeting .  1027

COMMISSION ON CRIMINAL SENTENCING POLICY

Public Hearing .  1027

BOARD OF DIETETIC PRACTICE

Public Meeting .  1027

DEPARTMENT OF THE ENVIRONMENT

Public Meeting .  1027

MARYLAND DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH

Public Meeting .  1027

DEPARTMENT OF INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY

Public Meeting .  1027

DEPARTMENT OF INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY

Public Meeting .  1028

MARYLAND STATE LOTTERY AND GAMING CONTROL COMMISSION

Public Meeting .  1028

BOARD OF OCCUPATIONAL THERAPY PRACTICE

Public Meeting .  1028

 

COMAR Online

        The Code of Maryland Regulations is available at www.dsd.state.md.us as a free service of the Office of the Secretary of State, Division of State Documents. The full text of regulations is available and searchable. Note, however, that the printed COMAR continues to be the only official and enforceable version of COMAR.

        The Maryland Register is also available at www.dsd.state.md.us.

        For additional information, visit www.dsd.maryland.gov, Division of State Documents, or call us at (410) 974-2486 or 1 (800) 633-9657.

 

Availability of Monthly List of
Maryland Documents

        The Maryland Department of Legislative Services receives copies of all publications issued by State officers and agencies. The Department prepares and distributes, for a fee, a list of these publications under the title ‘‘Maryland Documents’’. This list is published monthly, and contains bibliographic information concerning regular and special reports, bulletins, serials, periodicals, catalogues, and a variety of other State publications. ‘‘Maryland Documents’’ also includes local publications.

        Anyone wishing to receive ‘‘Maryland Documents’’ should write to: Legislative Sales, Maryland Department of Legislative Services, 90 State Circle, Annapolis, MD 21401.

 

CLOSING DATES AND ISSUE DATES THROUGH
December 2025

Issue
Date

Emergency

and Proposed

Regulations

5 p.m.*

Notices, etc.

10:30 a.m.

Final

Regulations

10:30 a.m.

2024

November 15

October 28

November 4

November 6

December 2***

November 8**

November 18

November 20

December 13

November 25

December 2

December 4

December 27

December 9

December 16

December 18

2025

 

 

 

January 10

December 23

December 30

December **

January 24

January 6

January 13

January 15

February 7

January 17**

January 27

January 29

February 21

February 3

February 10

February 12

March 7

February 14**

February 24

February 26

March 21

March 3

March 10

March 12

April 4

March 17

March 24

March 26

April 18

March 31

April 7

April 9

May 2

April 14

April 21

April 23

May 16

April 28

May 5

May 7

May 30

May 12

May 19

May 21

June 13

May 23**

June 2

June 4

June 27

June 9

June 16

June 18

July 11

June 23

June 30

July 2

July 25

July 7

July 14

July 16

August 8

July 21

July 28

July 30

August 22

August 4

August 11

August 13

September 5

August 18

August 25

August 27

September 19

August 29**

September 8

September 10

October 3

September 15

September 22

September 24

October 17

September 29

October 6

October 8

October 31

October 10**

October 20

October 22

November 14

October 27

November 3

November 5

December 1***

November 10

November 17

November 19

December 12

November 24

December 1

December 3

December 26

December 8

December 15

December 17

   Please note that this table is provided for planning purposes and that the Division of State Documents (DSD) cannot guarantee submissions will be published in an agency’s desired issue. Although DSD strives to publish according to the schedule above, there may be times when workload pressures prevent adherence to it.

*   Also note that proposal deadlines are for submissions to DSD for publication in the Maryland Register and do not take into account the 15-day AELR review period. The due date for documents containing 8 to 18 pages is 48 hours before the date listed; the due date for documents exceeding 18 pages is 1 week before the date listed.

NOTE: ALL DOCUMENTS MUST BE SUBMITTED IN TIMES NEW ROMAN, 9-POINT, SINGLE-SPACED FORMAT. THE PAGE COUNT REFLECTS THIS FORMATTING.

**      Note closing date changes due to holidays.

***    Note issue date changes due to holidays.

The regular closing date for Proposals and Emergencies is Monday.

 

Cumulative Table of COMAR Regulations
Adopted, Amended, or Repealed

   This table, previously printed in the Maryland Register lists the regulations, by COMAR title, that have been adopted, amended, or repealed in the Maryland Register since the regulations were originally published or last supplemented in the Code of Maryland Regulations (COMAR). The table is no longer printed here but may be found on the Division of State Documents website at www.dsd.state.md.us.

Table of Pending Proposals

   The table below lists proposed changes to COMAR regulations. The proposed changes are listed by their COMAR number, followed by a citation to that issue of the Maryland Register in which the proposal appeared. Errata and corrections pertaining to proposed regulations are listed, followed by “(err)” or “(corr),” respectively. Regulations referencing a document incorporated by reference are followed by “(ibr)”. None of the proposals listed in this table have been adopted. A list of adopted proposals appears in the Cumulative Table of COMAR Regulations Adopted, Amended, or Repealed.


01 EXECUTIVE DEPARTMENT

 

01.02.11.03,.11 • 51:21 Md. R. 928 (10-18-24)

 

05 DEPARTMENT OF HOUSING AND COMMUNITY DEVELOPMENT

 

05.23.01.01—.04 • 51:22 Md. R. 966 (11-1-24)

 

07 DEPARTMENT OF HUMAN SERVICES

 

07.02.09.01—.13 • 51:19 Md. R. 855 (9-20-24)

07.02.25.01—.24 • 51:19 Md. R. 861 (9-20-24)

 

08 DEPARTMENT OF NATURAL RESOURCES

 

08.02.01.12 • 51:22 Md. R. 968 (11-1-24)

08.02.05.23,.26,.27 • 51:10 Md. R. 534 (5-17-24)

08.02.15.08,.09,.12 • 51:11 Md. R. 581 (5-31-24)

08.02.22.02 • 51:10 Md. R. 534 (5-17-24)

08.02.25.03 • 51:11 Md. R. 581 (5-31-24)

 

09 MARYLAND DEPARTMENT OF LABOR

 

09.03.02.01,.04,.09—.13 • 51:14 Md. R. 685 (7-12-24)

09.03.06.02,.04,.06,.16 • 51:14 Md. R. 685 (7-12-24)

09.03.09.02,.07 • 51:14 Md. R. 685 (7-12-24)

09.03.15.01—.05 • 51:14 Md. R. 688 (7-12-24)

       51:15 Md. R. 713 (7-26-24) (corr)

09.11.09.02 • 51:15 Md. R. 713 (7-26-24)

09.13.07.02,.04 51:19 Md. R. 870 (9-20-24)

09.19.08.02 51:19 Md. R. 871 (9-20-24)

09.33.02.01—.09 • 50:25 Md. R. 1100 (12-15-23)

09.36.06.01 51:19 871 (9-20-24)

09.36.08.02 51:19 Md. R. 871 (9-20-24)

09.36.08.02 • 50:25 Md. R. 1101 (12-15-23)

09.42.01.01—.03 • Md. R. 929 (10-18-24)

09.42.02.01—.10 • Md. R. 932 (10-18-24)

09.42.03.01—.10 • Md. R. 933 (10-18-24)

09.42.04.01—.12 • Md. R. 937 (10-18-24)

 

10 MARYLAND DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH

 

     Subtitles 01—08 (1st volume)

 

10.07.14.01—.65 • 51:6 Md. R. 272 (3-22-24)

 

     Subtitle 09 (2nd volume)

 

10.09.11.11 • 51:2 Md. R. 79 (1-26-24)

10.09.21.02—.06 • 51:2 Md. R. 82 (1-26-24)

10.09.24.02,.07,.12 • 51:2 Md. R. 79 (1-26-24)

10.09.39.02,.06 • 50:24 Md. R. 1049 (12-1-23)

10.09.43.10,.13 • 51:2 Md. R. 79 (1-26-24)

10.09.46.12 • 51:4 Md. R. 204 (2-23-24)

10.09.53.04,.05 • 51:4 Md. R. 206 (2-23-24)

10.09.92.04,.05 • 51:1 Md. R. 38 (1-12-24)

10.25.10.01—.17,.19 • Md. R. 969 (11-1-24)

 

     Subtitles 37—52 (5th volume)

 

10.37.01.02 • 51:18 Md. R. 812 (9-6-24) (ibr)

10.37.01.03 • 51:17 Md. R. 779 (8-23-24)

10.44.20.02 • 50:20 Md. R. 918 (10-6-23)

 

     Subtitles 53—68 (6th volume)

 

10.63.07.02,.03,.05,.11 • 51:3 Md. R. 173 (2-9-24)

10.67.04.20 • 50:24 Md. R. 1049 (12-1-23)

10.67.06.28 • 50:24 Md. R. 1049 (12-1-23)

 

11 DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION

 

     Subtitles 01—10

11.03.01.09 • 51:11 Md. R. 585 (5-31-24)

        51:18 Md. R. 813 (9-6-24)

11.11.13.03 • 51:20 Md. R. 901 (10-4-24)

 

12 DEPARTMENT OF PUBLIC SAFETY AND CORRECTIONAL SERVICES

 

12.04.09.02 • 51:13 Md. R. 650 (6-28-24)

 

13A STATE BOARD OF EDUCATION

 

13A.07.06.02,.08 • 51:20 Md. R. 902 (10-4-24)

13A.07.08.01—.06, 07,08 • 51:20 Md. R. 903 (10-4-24)

13A.12.01.05—.07 51:21 Md. R. 942 (10-18-24)

13A.12.02.06,.07 51:21 Md. R. 942 (10-18-24)

13A.12.02.03 51:21 Md. R. 942 (10-18-24)

13A.12.04.02,.06,.07,.13,.15 51:21 Md. R. 942 (10-18-24)

13A.12.05.06,.08,.10,.15 51:21 Md. R. 942 (10-18-24)

13A.14.15.01—.09 • 51:22 Md. R. 973 (11-1-24)

13A.16.08.03 • 51:2 Md. R. 95 (1-26-24)

13A.16.10.02 • 51:2 Md. R. 95 (1-26-24)

13A.17.10.02 • 51:2 Md. R. 95 (1-26-24)

 

13B MARYLAND HIGHER EDUCATION COMMISSION

 

13B.02.03.02,.03,.06,.20 • 51:20 Md. R. 905 (10-4-24)

13B.02.03.28 • 51:18 Md. R. 816 (9-6-24)

13B.08.17.02—.05 • 51:16 Md. R. 759 (8-9-24)

13B.08.21.01—.22 • 51:18 Md. R. 818 (9-6-24)

 

14 INDEPENDENT AGENCIES

 

14.01.04.05 • 51:22 Md. R. 978 (11-1-24)

14.04.02.04 51:22 Md. R. 979 (11-1-24)

14.04.05.05• 51:22 Md. R. 979 (11-1-24)

14.04.10.01—.06 51:22 Md. R. 979 (11-1-24)

14.04.11.01—.05 51:22 Md. R. 979 (11-1-24)

14.35.07.08,.11,.13,.18,.19 • 51:22 Md. R. 983 (11-1-24)

14.35.07.12 • 51:20 Md. R. 906 (10-4-24)

14.35.14.04 • 51:22 Md. R. 983 (11-1-24)

14.35.18.03,.04 • 51:17 Md. R. 789 (8-23-24)

14.39.02.05 • 51:20 Md. R. 907 (10-4-24)

 

15 MARYLAND DEPARTMENT OF AGRICULTURE

 

15.20.07.02 51:22 Md. R. 984 (11-1-24) (ibr)

15.20.13.01—.28 51:22 Md. R. 985 (11-1-24)

 

20 PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION

 

20.06.01.01—.09 • 51:18 Md. R. 822 (9-6-24)

20.06.02.01—.06 • 51:18 Md. R. 822 (9-6-24)

20.50.09.02,.06,.07,.09,.10,.12—.14 • 51:17 Md. R. 789 (8-23-24)

 

21 STATE PROCUREMENT REGULATIONS

 

21.10.05.02.06 • 51:20 Md. R. 907 (10-4-24)

21.10.06.12 • 51:20 Md. R. 907 (10-4-24)

 

26 DEPARTMENT OF THE ENVIRONMENT

 

     Subtitles 01—07 (Part 1)

 

26.04.01.01,.01-1,.20,.31 • 51:6 Md. R. 309 (3-22-24) (ibr)

 

     Subtitles 08—12 (Part 2)

 

26.11.43.04 51:19 Md. R. 872 (9-20-24)

     Subtitles 19—30 (Part 4)

 

26.28.01.01—.03 • 51:18 Md. R. 830 (9-6-24) (ibr)

26.28.02.01—.05 • 51:18 Md. R. 830 (9-6-24)

26.28.03.01,.02 • 51:18 Md. R. 830 (9-6-24)

26.28.04.01—.03 • 51:18 Md. R. 830 (9-6-24)

 

27 CRITICAL AREA COMMISSION FOR THE CHESAPEAKE AND ATLANTIC COASTAL BAYS

 

27.01.01.01 51:22 Md. R. 996 (11-1-24)

27.01.02.01,.01-1,.02, 02-1, .02-2, .03—.06,.06-1,.06-2,.06-3,.07,.08,. 51:22 Md. R. 996 (11-1-24)

27.01.03.02—.04 51:22 Md. R. 996 (11-1-24)

27.01.05.01,.02 51:22 Md. R. 996 (11-1-24)

27.01.06.02,.03 51:22 Md. R. 996 (11-1-24)

27.01.07.02,.03 51:22 Md. R. 996 (11-1-24)

27.01.08.03 51:22 Md. R. 996 (11-1-24)

27.01.09.01—.01-3,.01-6,.01-7,.02—.05 51:22 Md. R. 996 (11-1-24)

27.01.10.01,.02 51:22 Md. R. 996 (11-1-24)

27.01.11.04—.06 51:22 Md. R. 996 (11-1-24)

27.01.12.06,.07 51:22 Md. R. 996 (11-1-24)

27.01.14.03.05,.06 51:22 Md. R. 996 (11-1-24)

27.02.01,.01 51:22 Md. R. 996 (11-1-24)

27.02.02.01,.02 51:22 Md. R. 996 (11-1-24)

27.02.03,.01,.02 51:22 Md. R. 996 (11-1-24)

27.02.04,.01,.02 51:22 Md. R. 996 (11-1-24)

27.02.05.01,,.03—.03-2,.04-1,.04-2,.06,.07,.08-2,.08-3,.09—.13,.15—.15-3 51:22 Md. R. 996 (11-1-24)

27.02.06.01 51:22 Md. R. 996 (1161-24)

27.02.07.01—.04 51:22 Md. R. 996 (11-1-24)

27.02.08,.01,.02 51:22 Md. R. 996 (11-1-24)

27.03.01,.01—.04,.05 51:22 Md. R. 996 (11-1-24)

 

29 DEPARTMENT OF STATE POLICE

 

29.03.01.45 • 51:10 Md. R. 542 (5-17-24)

29.03.01.58 • 51:15 Md. R. 718 (7-26-24)

29.05.03.01—.09 • 51:15 Md. R. 719 (7-26-24)

 

30 MARYLAND INSTITUTE FOR EMERGENCY MEDICAL SERVICES SYSTEMS (MIEMSS)

 

30.02.02.04,.06—.09 • 50:24 Md. R. 1061 (12-1-23)

 

31 MARYLAND INSURANCE ADMINISTRATION

 

31.03.18.02,.17 • 51:21 Md. R. 946 (10-18-24)

31.04.18.02,.15 • 51:21 Md. R. 946 (10-18-24)

31.08.03.04,.05,.07,.08 • 51:22 Md. R. 1022 (11-1-24)

 

33 STATE BOARD OF ELECTIONS

 

33.03.02.01,.03,.05 • 51:16 Md. R. 762 (8-9-24)

33.04.01.02,.07 • 51:8 Md. R. 375 (4-19-24)

33.04.02.01—.03 • 51:8 Md. R. 375 (4-19-24)

33.05.02.02 • 51:16 Md. R. 762 (8-9-24)

33.17.06.05 • 51:16 Md. R. 762 (8-9-24)

 

34 DEPARTMENT OF PLANNING

 

34.04.04.04 51:22 Md. R. 1025 (11-1-24)

 

The Governor

EXECUTIVE ORDER

01.01.2024.35

(Renewal of Executive Order 01.01.2024.09)

 

WHEREAS, I, Wes Moore, Governor of the State of Maryland, issued Executive Order 01.01.2024.09 declaring a State of Emergency due to the significant infrastructure damage to the Francis Scott Key Bridge in Baltimore on March 26, 2024;

WHEREAS, The declaration of the State of Emergency was renewed on August 16, 2024, by Executive Order 01.01.2024.28;

 

WHEREAS, Because of the on-going impact of this incident, emergency conditions continue to exist Statewide;

 

NOW, THEREFORE, I, WES MOORE, GOVERNOR OF THE STATE OF MARYLAND, BY VIRTUE OF THE AUTHORITY VESTED IN ME BY THE CONSTITUTION AND LAWS OF MARYLAND, INCLUDING BUT NOT LIMITED TO TITLE 14 OF THE PUBLIC SAFETY ARTICLE OF THE MARYLAND CODE, HEREBY DECLARE THAT THE STATE OF EMERGENCY CONTINUES TO EXIST IN THE STATE OF MARYLAND, THAT THE  MARCH 26, 2024 DECLARATION IS RENEWED, AND FURTHER PROCLAIM THE FOLLOWING EXECUTIVE ORDER, EFFECTIVE IMMEDIATELY:

 

The Maryland Department of Emergency Management is hereby directed to continue to coordinate the State preparedness and response to impacts of this incident.

All other appropriate State authorities are hereby authorized to activate their emergency preparedness plans and engage, deploy, use, and coordinate available resources in furtherance of those plans.

The Maryland National Guard remains on regular duty.

 

GIVEN Under My Hand and the Great Seal of the State of Maryland, in Annapolis, this 11th Day of October, 2024.

 

 

WES MOORE
Governor

 

ATTEST:

 

 

Susan C. Lee
Secretary of State

[24-22-15]

 

Final Action on Regulations

 

Symbol Key

   Roman type indicates text already existing at the time of the proposed action.

   Italic type indicates new text added at the time of proposed action.

   Single underline, italic indicates new text added at the time of final action.

   Single underline, roman indicates existing text added at the time of final action.

   [[Double brackets]] indicate text deleted at the time of final action.

 

Title 08
DEPARTMENT OF NATURAL RESOURCES

Subtitle 02 FISHERIES SERVICE

08.02.01 General

Authority: Natural Resources Article, §4-205, Annotated Code of Maryland

Notice of Final Action

[24-098-F]

On October 22, 2024, the Secretary of Natural Resources  adopted amendments to Regulation .09 under COMAR 08.02.01 General.  This action, which was proposed for adoption in 51:18 Md. R. 811-812  (September 6, 2024), has been adopted as proposed.

Effective Date: November 11, 2024.

JOSH KURTZ
Secretary of Natural Resources

 

Subtitle 34 BOARD OF PHARMACY

10.34.34 Pharmacy Technicians

Authority: Health Occupations Article, §§12-101, 12-205, 12-6B-02, and 12-6B-07, Annotated Code of Maryland

Notice of Final Action

[24-029-F]

On October 7, 2024, the Secretary of Health adopted amendments to Regulations .02, .03, .07, and .10 under COMAR 10.34.34 Pharmacy Technicians.  This action, which was proposed for adoption in 51:10 Md. R. 537-538 (May 17, 2024), has been adopted as proposed.

Effective Date: November 11, 2024.

LAURA HERRERA SCOTT
Secretary of Health

 

Subtitle 37 HEALTH SERVICES COST REVIEW COMMISSION

10.37.01 Uniform Accounting and Reporting System for Hospitals and Related Institutions

Authority: Authority: Health-General Article, §§9-207, 19-215, 19-303 Annotated Code of Maryland

Notice of Final Action

[24-091-F]

On October 9, 2024, the Health Services Cost Review Commission adopted amendments to Regulation .03 under COMAR 10.37.01 Uniform Accounting and Reporting System for Hospitals and Related Institutions. This action, which was proposed for adoption in 51:17 Md. R. 779 (August 23, 2024), has been adopted as proposed.

Effective Date: November 11, 2024.

JOSHUA SHARFSTEIN
Chair Health Services Cost Review Commission

 

Title 10
MARYLAND DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH

Subtitle 44 BOARD OF DENTAL EXAMINERS

10.44.19 Dental Radiation Technologist

Authority: Health Occupations Article, §4-505, Annotated Code of Maryland

Notice of Final Action

[23-235-F]

On October 7, 2024, the Secretary of Health adopted amendments to Regulation .05, the repeal of existing Regulation .06, amendments to and the recodification of existing Regulation .07 to be Regulation .06, and the recodification of existing Regulations .08—.12 to be .07—.11 under COMAR 10.44.19 Dental Radiation Technologist. This action, which was proposed for adoption in 50:24 Md. R. 1051 (December 1, 2023), has been adopted as proposed.

Effective Date: January 1, 2025.

LAURA HERRERA SCOTT
Secretary of Health

 

Title 13A
STATE BOARD OF EDUCATION

Subtitle 05 SPECIAL INSTRUCTIONAL PROGRAMS

13A.05.09 Programs for Homeless Children

Authority: Education Article, §§2-205 and 7-301, Annotated Code of
Maryland

Notice of Final Action

[24-088-F]

On October 22, 2024, the State Board of Education adopted amendments to Regulations .01—.04 and .07 under COMAR 13A.05.09 Programs for Homeless Children. This action, which was proposed for adoption in 51:18 Md. R. 813-815 (September 6, 2024), has been adopted as proposed.

Effective Date: November 11, 2024.

CAREY M. WRIGHT, ED.D.
State Superintendent of Schools

 

Title 14
INDEPENDENT AGENCIES

Subtitle 26 MARYLAND ENERGY ADMINISTRATION

14.26.03 Maryland Efficiency Standards

Authority: State Government Article, §9-2006, Annotated Code of Maryland

Notice of Final Action

[24-059-F]

On October 18, 2024, the Maryland Energy Administration adopted amendments to Regulations .01, .03—.06 and .08—.13, the repeal of existing Regulation .02, and new Regulation .02 under COMAR 14.26.03 Maryland Efficiency Standards. This action, which was proposed for adoption in 51:17 Md. R. 784—788 (August 23, 2024), has been adopted with the nonsubstantive changes shown below.

Effective Date: January 1, 2025.

Attorney General’s Certification

In accordance with State Government Article, §10-113, Annotated Code of Maryland, the Attorney General certifies that the following changes do not differ substantively from the proposed text. The nature of the changes and the basis for this conclusion are as follows:

In accordance with State Government Article, §10-113, Annotated Code of Maryland, the Assistant Attorney General (Unit Counsel) for the Maryland Energy Administration certifies that the following change does not differ substantively from the proposed text. The nature of the change and the basis for this conclusion are as follows: Regulation .05F is amended to correct a typographical error in the name of the standard for portable electric spas. Therefore, the amendment is not substantive and does not change the intent or impact of the regulation as originally proposed.

.05 Minimum Efficiency Standards.

A.—E. (proposed text unchanged)

F. Portable electric spas shall meet the requirements of the [[ANSI/ASPS/ICC 14-2019]] ANSI/APSP/ICC 14-2019.

G.—L. (proposed text unchanged)

 

PAUL G. PINSKY
Director

Subtitle 35 MARYLAND HEALTH BENEFIT EXCHANGE

14.35.18 Small Business Health Options Program

Authority: Insurance Article, §31-106(c)(1)(iv), 31-108(b)(13), and 31-111, Annotated Code of Maryland

Notice of Final Action

[24-096-F]

On October 21, 2024, the Maryland Health Benefit Exchange adopted amendments to Regulations .03 and .04 under COMAR 14.35.18 Small Business Health Options Program. .This action, which was proposed for adoption in 51:17 Md. R. 789 (August 23, 2024), has been adopted as proposed.

Effective Date: November 11, 2024.

MICHELE EBERLE
Executive Director

Title 25
OFFICE OF THE STATE TREASURER

Subtitle 03 TREASURY MANAGEMENT

25.03.04 Policy Regarding the Investment of Public Money by the State of Maryland

Authority: State Finance and Procurement Article, §6-222, Annotated Code of Maryland

Notice of Final Action

[24-092-F]

On October 22, 2024, the  Office of the State Treasurer adopted new Regulations .01—.06 under a new chapter, COMAR 25.03.04 Policy Regarding the Investment of Public Money by the State of Maryland.  This action, which was proposed for adoption in 51:18 Md. R. 760-762 (September 6, 2024), has been adopted as proposed.

Effective Date: November 11, 2024.

JONATHAN MARTIN
Chief Deputy Treasurer

 

Withdrawal of Regulations

 

Title 10
MARYLAND DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH

Subtitle 44 BOARD OF DENTAL EXAMINERS

10.44.01 Dental Assistants

Authority: Health Occupations Article, §4-205, Annotated Code of Maryland

Notice of Withdrawal

[23-223-W]

 

Pursuant to State Government Article, §10-116(b), Annotated Code of Maryland, notice is given that the proposal to repeal existing Regulations .01—.08 and adopt new Regulations .01—.39 under COMAR 10.44.01 Dental Assistants, which was published in 50:20 Md. R. 911—918 (October 6, 2023), has been withdrawn by operation of law.

 

 

GAIL S. KLAKRING
Administrator
Division of State Documents

 

Title 10
MARYLAND DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH

Subtitle 44 BOARD OF DENTAL EXAMINERS

Notice of Withdrawal

[23-224-W]

 

Pursuant to State Government Article, §10-116(b), Annotated Code of Maryland, notice is given that the proposal to  amend Regulation .02 under COMAR 10.44.20 Fees and amend Regulations .02, .04—.06, and .08, adopt new Regulations .09, .10, and .14, recodify existing Regulations .09—.11 and .13 to be Regulations .11—.13 and .15, respectively, and repeal existing Regulations .12 and .14 under COMAR 10.44.22 Continuing Education, which was published in 50:20 Md. R. 918—923 (October 6, 2023), has been withdrawn by operation of law.

 

 

GAIL S. KLAKRING
Administrator
Division of State Documents

 


Proposed Action on Regulations

 


Title 05
DEPARTMENT OF HOUSING AND COMMUNITY DEVELOPMENT

Subtitle 23 Public Health Impact Assessments

05.23.01 Procedure

Authority: Land Use Article, §7-509, Annotated Code of Maryland

Notice of Proposed Action

[24-141-P]

The Secretary of Housing and Community Development proposes to adopt new Regulations .01—.04 under a new chapter, COMAR 05.23.01 Procedure, under a new subtitle, Subtitle 23 Public Health Impact Assessments.

Statement of Purpose

The purpose of this action is to describe procedures and requirements for the public health impact statements for certain residential projects required under Ch. 122 (H.B. 538), Acts of 2024.

Estimate of Economic Impact

I. Summary of Economic Impact. This action is not anticipated to require additional expenditure by the Department of Housing and Community Development (DHCD). The receipt and review of public health impact assessments required under HB 538 will be handled by existing DHCD staff.

 

II. Types of Economic Impact.

Impacted Entity

Revenue (R+/R-)

Expenditure (E+/E-)

Magnitude

A. On issuing agency:

NONE

 

B. On other State agencies:

NONE

 

C. On local governments:

NONE

 

 

 

 

 

Benefit (+)

Cost (-)

Magnitude

D. On regulated industries or trade groups:

 

 

trade groups

(+)

Indeterminable

E. On other industries or trade groups:

NONE

 

F. Direct and indirect effects on public:

 

 

Public

(+)

Indeterminable

 

III. Assumptions. (Identified by Impact Letter and Number from Section II.)

D. The public health impact assessments, which are required by statute, will likely require some additional labor and/or expenditure by developers of certain qualified projects. However, the magnitude of the impact cannot be determined.

F. The public health impact assessment requirement is intended to protect residents of qualified residential projects being constructed in non-residential zones from health risks caused by prior uses of the site or prior or current uses in close proximity to the site. Residents of these projects will benefit from the requirement for the developer to conduct a thorough assessment of any potential health risks. However, the magnitude of the impact cannot be determined.

Economic Impact on Small Businesses

The proposed action has minimal or no economic impact on small businesses.

Impact on Individuals with Disabilities

The proposed action has no impact on individuals with disabilities.

Opportunity for Public Comment

Comments may be sent to Jordan Gilmore, Senior Policy Analyst, Office of Policy Development, Department of Housing and Community Development, 7800 Harkins Road, Lanham, MD 20706, or call 443-571-2147, or email to jordan.gilmore@maryland.gov. Comments will be accepted through December 2, 2024. A public hearing has not been scheduled.

.01 Purpose.

The purpose of this chapter is to prescribe the policies and procedures relating to public health impact

statements as required by Land Use Article, §7-509, Annotated Code of Maryland.

.02 Definitions.

A. In this chapter, the following terms have the meanings indicated.

B. Terms Defined.

(1) “Area median income” means the median household income for the area adjusted for household size as calculated annually by the United States Department of Housing and Urban Development.

(2)“Department” means the Department of Housing and Community Development, a principal department of the State.

(3) “Environmental professional” means a person meeting the definition in Title 40, Part 312, of the Code of Federal Regulations.

(4) “Health hazard” means a chemical, physical, biological, or ergonomic factor in the environment that may have a negative impact on human health.

(5) “Public health impact assessment” means a written evaluation of potential negative impacts on public health associated with the proximity of a qualified project to any health hazards within an area zoned for nonresidential use.

(6) “Qualified project” means a residential project that meets the definition in Land Use Article, §§7-502, 7-503, or 7-504, Annotated Code of Maryland, as applicable.

(7) “Secretary” means the Secretary of the Department of Housing and Community Development, a principal department of the State.

.03 Public Health Impact Assessment Required.

A. Before a qualified project is authorized to exceed the density in an area zoned for nonresidential use under Land Use Article Title 7, Subtitle 5, Annotated Code of Maryland, the entity responsible for the qualified project shall:

(1) Conduct a public health impact assessment;

(2) Submit the public health impact assessment to the Department; and

(3) Receive approval of the public health impact assessment from the Department.

B. A public health impact statement submitted to the Department under this chapter shall include:

(1) An environmental assessment;

(2) A project overview; and

(3) An area overview.

C. An entity responsible for a qualified project that has applied for funding or financing from the Department shall only be required to submit the information required for the project overview and the area overview to the extent that the information has not been provided to the Department in its application and/or market study.

D. An environmental assessment under this chapter shall be completed by a qualified environmental professional and shall include:

(1) An examination of the method of water supply and sewage disposal for the project;

(2) A review of available documentation describing existing and previous building uses and building materials used on the project site;

(3) Interviews with previous owners and/or occupants of the project site to determine any prior use of the site;

(4) Interviews with owners and/or occupants of other properties in the immediate area to determine historical neighboring land use and the probability of contamination;

(5) An evaluation of the project site for pertinent environmental issues, including:

(a) Foundation conditions;

(b) Man-made hazards;

(c) Stormwater runoff;

(d) Underground storage tanks; and

(e) Potential for hazards involving lead-based paint, radon gas, mold, asbestos, and PCBs;

(6) An evaluation of any other potential health hazards on or in close proximity to the project site;

(7) An evaluation of any environmental conditions particular to the project site;

(8) An evaluation of the proximity of the project site to any industrial facilities or other features that could potentially create a health hazard; and

(9) An evaluation of any mitigation of potential hazards.

E. A project overview under this chapter shall include detailed information regarding:

(1) The proposed design of the project;

(2) The number and type of housing units in the project;

(3) The number of housing units affordable to families at or below 60 percent of the local area median income;

(4) The monthly rent for market-rate and affordable units in the project;

(5) Amenities and other project details; and

(6) A summary of the zoning for the project site.

F. An area overview under this chapter shall include detailed information regarding:

(1) The demographics of the area surrounding the project site, including:

(a) Age;

(b) Race and ethnicity;

(c) Educational attainment;

(d) Financial status;

(e) Life expectancy;

(f) Infant mortality; and

(g) Population density;

(2) Proximity of the project site to highways and transit;

(3) Proximity of the project site to other local amenities; and

(4) Access of the project site to services including:

(a) Hospitals;

(b) Fire departments; and

(c) Schools, including institutions of higher education.

G. An entity responsible for a qualified project subject to this chapter shall submit its public health impact assessment to the Department:

(1) For projects for which the entity has applied for funding or financing through the Department:

(a) If applicable, as part of the Viability or Viability/Commitment package submitted to the Department; or

(b) For tax credit-only projects, at least 90 days before closing;

(2) For projects for which the entity has not applied for funding or financing through the Department, at the time the density bonus is requested via form available on the Department’s Multifamily Library web page.

.04 Evaluation of Public Health Impact Assessment by Department.

A. Upon receipt of a public health impact assessment under this chapter, the Department shall:

(1) Review the public health impact assessment, including any relevant information submitted by an entity responsible for a qualified project as part of its initial application or Viability or Viability/Commitment Package; and

(2) Make an initial determination as to the sufficiency of the information provided in the public health impact statement.

B. If the Department determines that the information submitted does not meet the requirements of Regulation .03 of this chapter or is insufficient to make a final determination, it shall promptly:

(1) Notify the entity responsible for the qualified project;

(2) Provide the entity responsible for the qualified project with documentation showing what additional information is requested; and

(3) Set a reasonable deadline for the submission of the requested additional information.

C. If the Department determines that the information submitted meets the requirements of Regulation .03 of this chapter, it shall make a determination as to whether further environmental assessment is necessary as a result of potential health hazards that have been identified.

D. The Department shall require a further environmental assessment if:

(1) The initial environmental assessment indicates health hazards on, or reasonably likely to affect, the project site; or

(2) The qualified project is a renovation project, unless the environmental professional who completed the initial environmental assessment has sufficiently demonstrated via written statement that a further environmental assessment should not be provided.

E. If the Department determines that a further environmental assessment is necessary, it shall:

(1) Promptly notify the entity responsible for the qualified project;

(2) Provide the entity responsible for the qualified project with documentation showing what additional information is requested, which may include specialized studies or reviews of, as applicable, such as:

(a) Asbestos and lead paint samplings and testing;

(b) Site and record reviews of any underground storage tanks and associated supply lines;

(c) Soil sampling and analysis;

(d) Groundwater or aquifer sampling;

(e) Testing for PCB contamination;

(f) In-depth investigation of neighboring properties;

(g) Radon testing; and

(h) Mold testing;

(3) Notify the Maryland Department of the Environment and request that the Department of the Environment provide the entity responsible for the qualified project with specific instructions on how to address or mitigate any health hazards found; and

(4) Set a reasonable deadline for the submission of the requested additional information.

F. Any further environmental assessment, if required by the Department under this chapter, shall meet the requirements described in Standard E1903-11 published by the American Society for Testing and Materials.

G. When the Department determines that an entity responsible for a qualified project has sufficiently addressed or mitigated any health hazards as determined by an environmental assessment performed under this chapter, the Secretary or the Secretary’s designee shall certify so in writing.

H. When the Secretary or the Secretary’s designee has certified in writing that there are no unmitigated health hazards that could reasonably affect the project or its residents, the public health impact assessment is considered approved and the qualified project may proceed to underwriting or the density bonus application, as applicable.

 

JACOB DAY
Secretary of Housing and Community Development

 

Title 08
DEPARTMENT OF NATURAL RESOURCES

Subtitle 02 FISHERIES SERVICE

08.02.01 General

Authority: Natural Resources Article, §4-1006.1, Annotated Code of Maryland

Notice of Proposed Action

[24-122-P]

The Secretary of Natural Resources  proposes to amend Regulation .12 under COMAR 08.02.01 General.

Statement of Purpose

The purpose of this action is to revise the Submerged Aquatic Vegetation Protection Zones in order to correct two minor mistakes which have resulted in the proper areas not being identified. In the drafting and adoption of the 2023 updates to the Submerged Aquatic Vegetation Protection Zones, two coordinates were misidentified. The Department discovered these errors when creating the maps of these areas. In Worcester County, the wrong longitude was identified near Snug Harbor and Sinepuxent Bay. This resulted in an area that was entirely on land instead of in the water. In Calvert County, the longitude of one of the coordinates near Drum Point was misidentified, leading to areas on shore and in an adjacent creek being covered by an irregular shape. The proposed action corrects a coordinate in both areas. By correcting these two coordinates, the appropriate areas will be protected.

Estimate of Economic Impact

The proposed action has no economic impact.

Economic Impact on Small Businesses

The proposed action has minimal or no economic impact on small businesses.

Impact on Individuals with Disabilities

The proposed action has no impact on individuals with disabilities.

Opportunity for Public Comment

Comments may be sent to Submerged Aquatic Vegetation—Housekeeping, Regulatory Staff, Maryland Department of Natural Resources, Fishing and Boating Services, 580 Taylor Avenue, E-4, Annapolis, MD 21401, or call 410-260-8300, or email to or submit comment to https://dnr.maryland.gov/fisheries/pages/regulations/changes.aspx#sav_housekeeping, no fax. Comments will be accepted through December 2, 2024. A public hearing has not been scheduled.

.12 Submerged Aquatic Vegetation (SAV) Protection Zones.

A. (text unchanged)

B. Submerged Aquatic Vegetation (SAV) Protection Zones.

(1)—(4) (text unchanged)

(5) Worcester County.

(a) (text unchanged)

(b) All of the waters of Snug Harbor and Sinepuxent Bay enclosed by a line beginning at a point at or near the shore south of Snug Harbor defined by Lat. 38°17.918' N, Long. 75° 07.415' W; then running approximately 67° True to a point defined by Lat. 38°18.007' N, [Long. 75°07.418' W] Long. 75°07.148' W; then running approximately 9° True to a point at or near the shore south of Coffins Point defined by Lat. 38° 18.077' N, Long. 75° 07.134' W; then running southwesterly along the shore to the point of beginning.

(c)—(o) (text unchanged)

(6) (text unchanged)

(7) Calvert County.

(a)—(j) (text unchanged)

(k) All of the waters of Patuxent River enclosed by a line beginning at a point east of Ship Point defined by Lat. 38°19.450' N, Long. 76°26.701' W; then running approximately 176° True to a point defined by Lat. 38°19.428' N, Long. 76°26.698' W; then running approximately 83° True to a point defined by Lat. 38°19.478' N, and Long. 76°26.205' W; then running approximately 1° True to a point at or near the southern shore of Drum Point defined by Lat. 38°19.512' N, [Long. 76°27.204' W] Long. 76°26.204' W; then running westerly along the shore to the point of beginning.

(8)—(9) (text unchanged)

 

JOSH KURTZ
Secretary of Natural Resources

 

Title 10
MARYLAND DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH

Subtitle 25 MARYLAND HEALTH CARE COMMISSION

10.25.10 Maryland Trauma Physician Services Fund

Authority: Health-General Article, §§19-103c, 19-130 and 19-207, Annotated Code of Maryland

Notice of Proposed Action

[24-145-P]

The Maryland Health Care Commission proposes to amend Regulations .01—.17 and .19 under COMAR 10.25.10 Maryland Trauma Physician Services Fund.  This action was considered at an open meeting held by the Commission on September 19, 2024.

Statement of Purpose

The purpose of this action is to conform the regulations with the statutory changes from Senate Bill 1092/House Bill 1439 from the 2024 legislative session. These changes update the funding sources of the Trauma Physician Services Fund, expand the application of the fund to include “health care practitioners”, increase and add grant application funds to pediatric trauma centers, and expand auditing capabilities to include grant applications.

Estimate of Economic Impact

I. Summary of Economic Impact. The proposed action increases the contribution from the Maryland Motor Vehicle Registration fee and adds a contribution from monetary penalties paid for driving while intoxicated beginning July 1, 2024. The estimated fiscal impact would add a revenue of about $19,000,000 in FY2025.

 

II. Types of Economic Impact.

Impacted Entity

Revenue (R+/R-)

Expenditure (E+/E-)

Magnitude

A. On issuing agency:

 

 

 (1) Maryland Health Care Commission

(R+)

Indeterminate

 (2) Maryland Health Care Commission

(E-)

Indeterminate

B. On other State agencies:

NONE

 

C. On local governments:

NONE

 

 

Benefit (+)

Cost (-)

Magnitude

D. On regulated industries or trade groups:

 

 

 Hospitals

(+)

Indeterminate

E. On other industries or trade groups:

NONE

 

F. Direct and indirect effects on public:

NONE

 

 

III. Assumptions. (Identified by Impact Letter and Number from Section II.)

A(1). The increased amount of $19,000,000 is assumed for dates beginning on July 1, 2024, when the Maryland Motor Vehicle Registration fees will increase biannually from $5.00 to $13.00. This will increase the revenue from approximately $12M a year to $31.2M a year.

A(2). The increased amount of $19,00,000 is assumed based on additional funds being contributed from 20% of the monetary penalties that are collected for driving while under the influence. We do not currently have an estimation on how much this will be due to the varying nature of those penalties.

D. For Trauma Centers in Maryland that are eligible for reimbursement from the fund, the amended regulations increase the rate for the on-call expenses on Medicaid Economic Index (MEI) from 30% up to 60%. This will increase the amount a hospital can be reimbursed from the Maryland Trauma Physician Services Fund. The amended regulations allow eligible Trauma Centers to now claim uncompensated care costs for health care practitioners. This will also increase the amount a hospital can be reimbursed from the Maryland Trauma Physician Services Fund.

Economic Impact on Small Businesses

The proposed action has minimal or no economic impact on small businesses.

Impact on Individuals with Disabilities

The proposed action has no impact on individuals with disabilities.

Opportunity for Public Comment

Comments may be sent to Jason Caplan, Chief, Special Projects, Maryland Health Care Commission, 4160 Patterson Avenue, Baltimore, MD 21215, or call 410-764-3579, or email to Jason.caplan3@maryland.gov. Comments will be accepted through December 2, 2024. A public hearing has not been scheduled.

Open Meeting

Final action on the proposal will be considered by the Maryland Health Care Commission during a public meeting to be held on January 16, 2025 at 1:00 pm, at 4160 Patterson Avenue, Baltimore, Maryland..

.01 Scope.

A. This chapter applies to trauma physicians, trauma health care practitioners, and Maryland Institute for Emergency Medical Services Systems designated trauma centers, [Maryland Trauma] Specialty Referral Centers, and rehabilitation hospitals that are affiliated with Maryland Institute for Emergency Medical Services Systems designated trauma centers by common ownership, as defined in Health-General Article, §19-130(a)(3) and (4), Annotated Code of Maryland, that provide trauma care.

B. Reimbursement.

(1) Trauma physicians or trauma health care practitioners seeking reimbursement for uncompensated care provided to trauma patients shall file a claim pursuant to this chapter to receive reimbursement from the Maryland Trauma Physician Services Fund.

(2) Trauma physicians or trauma health care practitioners seeking reimbursement for trauma care provided to trauma patients enrolled in the Maryland Medical Assistance Program at the elevated rate shall comply with special billing requirements pursuant to this chapter.

(3)—(4) (text unchanged)

(5) Trauma centers seeking trauma grants shall file an application to receive a grant from this Fund in accordance with a process and guidelines developed by the Maryland Health Care Commission.

.02 Definitions.

A. (text unchanged)

B. Terms Defined.

(1)—(8) (text unchanged)

(9) "Medicaid differential" means the difference in reimbursement between Medicare and Medicaid for trauma services provided by a trauma physician or trauma health care practitioner to a Medicaid trauma patient in a trauma center.

(10)—(14) (text unchanged)

(15) "Reasonable compensation [equivalent(RCE)] equivalent (RCE)":

(a)—(b) (text unchanged)

(16) Service Period.

(a) (text unchanged)

(b) "Service period" includes a subsequent readmission or outpatient visit to the trauma center, or trauma center-affiliated acute care general hospital, for services that are directly related to the initial trauma injury.

(c) “Service period” includes a subsequent admission or outpatient visit to a trauma center-affiliated rehabilitation hospital, or rehabilitation unit of a trauma center.

(17)—(18) (text unchanged)

(19) Trauma Center.

(a) "Trauma center" means a hospital designated by the Maryland Institute for Emergency Medical Services [Systems(MIEMSS)] Systems (MIEMSS) as:

(i)—(vi) (text unchanged)

(b) "Trauma center" includes [an out-of-State] a pediatric trauma center that has entered into an agreement with MIEMSS.

(20) “Trauma health care practitioner” means a health care practitioner licensed under the Health Occupations Article who provides care in a trauma center-affiliated general acute care hospital or in a trauma center-affiliated rehabilitation hospital during the service period to trauma patients on the Maryland Trauma Registry as defined by the Maryland Institute for Emergency Medical Services Systems (MIEMSS).

[(20)] (21) (text unchanged)

[(21)] (22) "Trauma physician" means a physician who provides care in a trauma [services] center, trauma center-affiliated general acute care hospital, or in a trauma center-affiliated rehabilitation hospital during the service period to a trauma patient on the Maryland Trauma Registry as defined by the Maryland Institute for Emergency Medical Services [Systems(MIEMSS)] Systems (MIEMSS).

[(22)] (23) "Trauma services" means trauma care provided to a trauma patient in a trauma center, [trauma-center-affiliated] trauma center-affiliated general acute care hospital, trauma center-affiliated rehabilitation hospital, or rehabilitation unit of a trauma center.

[(23)] (24) "Uncompensated care" means trauma services provided by a trauma physician or trauma health care practitioner to a trauma patient on the Maryland Trauma Registry who:

(a)—(c) (text unchanged)

(d) Has not paid the full Medicare reimbursement for the trauma care received, even after documented attempts by the trauma physician or trauma health care practitioner to obtain payment.

[(24)] (25)— [(25)] (26) (text unchanged)

.03 Fund Administration.

A. (text unchanged)

B. The purpose of the Fund is to subsidize the documented costs:

(1) Of uncompensated care incurred by a trauma physician or trauma health care practitioner in providing trauma services to a trauma patient on the Maryland Trauma Registry;

(2) Of undercompensated care incurred by a trauma physician or trauma health care practitioner in providing trauma services to an enrollee of the Medicaid Program who is a trauma patient on the Maryland Trauma Registry;

(3) (text unchanged)

(4) Incurred by a trauma center to maintain [trauma] patient education, equipment [or], services, systems, and training as required by MIEMSS, for trauma-related care and not otherwise reimbursed; and

(5) (text unchanged)

C.—D. (text unchanged)

.04 Source of Fund Revenue.

A. The Fund consists of motor vehicle registration surcharges paid into the Fund in accordance with Transportation Article, §§13-954(b), and 21-902, Annotated Code of Maryland, and regulations promulgated under that authority[.], and any other money transferred from the General Fund of the State.

B. The Commission shall make reimbursement from the Fund for:

(1)—(4) (text unchanged)

(5) [Trauma equipment; and] Grants that may cover costs of trauma centers for trauma related expenses, including physician standby, patient education, equipment, services, systems, training, and other MIEMSS-required incremental trauma costs not otherwise reimbursed; and

(6) The Commission's administrative expenses[.] including:

(a) The adjudication of uncompensated trauma claims;

(b) The audit of providers receiving uncompensated care trauma payments, Medicaid trauma payments, and on-call payments;

(c) The audit of managed care organizations payments to trauma physicians and trauma health care practitioners;

(d) Enhancements of the MIEMSS Trauma Registry; and

(e) Commission personnel costs associated with administering the Fund.

.05 Who May Request Payment.

A. A trauma physician or trauma health care practitioner as defined in Regulation .02 of this chapter may request payment under this chapter.

B. Medicaid and Uncompensated Care Reimbursement.

(1) Trauma [Physician] Practitioner Services. A faculty practice plan, a physician practice, a trauma center on behalf of the trauma physician or trauma health care practitioner, or an individual trauma physician or individual health care practitioner allowed to bill Medicaid may submit requests for payment for trauma services provided to a Medicaid trauma patient or for uncompensated care trauma services if:

(a) (text unchanged)

(b) The [physician] practitioner meets the definition of a trauma physician or trauma health care practitioner under Regulation .02 of this chapter.

(2) (text unchanged)

C. On-Call Payments. The following trauma centers may apply for on-call payments:

(1)—(2) (text unchanged)

(3) The [Maryland Trauma] Specialty Referral Centers.

D. (text unchanged)

.06 Payments for Medicaid Trauma Patients.

A. A trauma physician or trauma health care practitioner:

(1) Is eligible for payment from the Fund for trauma services provided to a Medicaid trauma patient on the Maryland Trauma Registry on or after July 1, [2006] 2024; and

(2) (text unchanged)

B. A trauma physician or trauma health care practitioner providing trauma services to a Medicaid trauma patient during the service period shall be reimbursed at the greater of:

(1)—(2) (text unchanged)

C. (text unchanged)

D. An organization billing on behalf of trauma physicians or trauma health care practitioners eligible for Medicaid differential payments shall designate a trauma service by using the appropriate code in the CPT Modifier field on the electronic claim or on the paper CMS 1500 in accordance with Medicaid claims submission requirements.

E.—F. (text unchanged)

G. The Fund shall transfer to the Maryland Department of Health [than] an amount sufficient to fully cover the State's share of expenditures for Medicaid differential payments for that fiscal year.

.07 Payments for Uncompensated Care Patients.

A. A trauma physician or trauma health care practitioner:

(1) Is eligible for payment from the Fund for trauma services provided to uncompensated trauma care patients with an admission date on the Maryland Trauma Registry beginning on or after July 1, [2006] 2024; and

(2) (text unchanged)

B. The cost of uncompensated care incurred by a trauma physician or trauma health care practitioner in providing trauma care to a trauma patient as defined in this chapter shall be reimbursed at a rate of up to 100 percent of the current Medicare facility-based payment for a service in the Baltimore carrier locality area, less any amount for trauma physician or trauma health care practitioner services paid by the patient or other third-party payors including, but not limited to, auto insurance, criminal injuries compensation fund, attorneys, or collection agencies, as reported to the Fund on the uncompensated services claim.

C. An organization billing on behalf of trauma physicians or trauma health care practitioners eligible for uncompensated care payments shall:

(1)—(2) (text unchanged)

D.—E. (text unchanged)

F. The uncompensated services claim shall:

(1)—(2) (text unchanged)

(3) Exclude noncovered services that the trauma physician or trauma health care practitioner provided to trauma patients covered by health insurance; [and]

(4) Exclude services for trauma patients covered by health insurance for which the trauma physician or trauma health care practitioner failed to comply with the insurer's coverage rules or claim filing requirements[.]; and

(5) Have a date of service on the claim not older than 5 years.

G. Uncompensated care services are eligible for reimbursement from the Fund only after a faculty practice plan, a physician [practice plan,] practice, a trauma center on behalf of a trauma physician or trauma health care practitioner, [or] an individual trauma physician or an individual trauma health care practitioner has completed its collection efforts using the respective entity's documented policies and procedures.

H. Order of Preference.

(1) To minimize administrative costs in administering the Fund, the order of preference for the entity submitting an uncompensated services claim is as follows:

(a)—(b) (text unchanged)

(c) Trauma physician[.];

(d) Individual trauma health care practitioner.

(2) (text unchanged)

I. A trauma patient treated at an out-of-State pediatric trauma center that has entered into an agreement with MIEMSS shall be a Maryland resident in order for the trauma physician or trauma health care practitioner to file an uncompensated services application for an uncompensated care shortfall payment. The determination of whether a trauma patient is a Maryland resident shall be based on the trauma patient's demographic information as listed on the Maryland Trauma Registry.

J. The uncompensated services claim shall contain the following information:

(1) The name and federal tax identification number of the trauma physician or trauma health care practitioner rendering the care;

(2)—(10) (text unchanged)

K. The Commission, in consultation with the Health Services Cost Review Commission, may establish a payment rate for uncompensated care incurred by a trauma physician or trauma health care practitioner in providing trauma care to trauma patients that is above the 100 percent of Medicare payment for the service if:

(1)—(4) (text unchanged)

.08 On-Call Payment.

A. Eligibility. The Fund will reimburse trauma centers' on-call costs to maintain surgeons on-call in conformance with MIEMSS' regulations at COMAR 30.08.05—30.08.14 for the minimum number of trauma physicians required to be on-call. Trauma centers are eligible for on-call payments as follows:

(1) The Level I trauma center and pediatric trauma center are eligible for on-call payments for on-call hours provided by trauma specialties designated in §B of this regulation on or after July 1, [2008] 2024;

(2)—(3) (text unchanged)

(4) [Maryland Trauma] Specialty Referral Centers are eligible for on-call payments for on-call hours provided by trauma specialties designated in §E of this regulation on or after July 1, [2008] 2024.

B. To determine the amount of on-call payments to a Level I trauma center or pediatric trauma center from the Fund, the following apply:

(1) The cost incurred by a Level I trauma center or pediatric trauma center to maintain trauma surgeons, pediatric trauma surgeons, neurosurgeons, and orthopedic surgeons on-call when a post-graduate resident, who meets MIEMMS’ requirements under COMAR 30.08.05.07, is attending shall be reimbursed at the lesser of a trauma center's actual on-call costs, or up to [30] 60 percent of the reasonable compensation equivalent's hourly rate for the specialty, inflated to the current year by the physician compensation component of the Medicare Economic Index as designated by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services;

(2) A Level I trauma center shall be eligible for a maximum 4,380 on-call hours each fiscal year beginning July 1, [2008] 2024; and

(3) A pediatric trauma center shall be eligible for a maximum 4,380 on-call hours each fiscal year beginning July 1, [2008] 2024.

C. To determine the amount of on-call payments to a Level II trauma center from the Fund, the following apply:

(1) The cost incurred by a Level II trauma center to maintain trauma surgeons, neurosurgeons, and orthopedic surgeons on-call shall be reimbursed at the lesser of a trauma center's actual on-call costs or up to [30] 60 percent of the reasonable compensation equivalent's hourly rate for the specialty, inflated to the current year by the physician compensation component of the Medicare Economic Index as designated by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services; and

(2) A Level II trauma center shall be eligible for a maximum [24,500] 26,280 on-call hours each fiscal year beginning July 1, [2006] 2024.

D. To determine the amount of on-call payments to a Level III trauma center from the Fund, the following apply:

(1) The cost incurred by a Level III trauma center to maintain anesthesiologists, neurosurgeons, orthopedic surgeons, and trauma surgeons on-call shall be reimbursed at the lesser of a trauma center's actual on-call costs or up to [35] 60 percent of the reasonable compensation equivalents hourly rate for the specialty, inflated to the current year by the physician compensation component of the Medicare Economic Index as designated by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services;

(2) A Level III trauma center shall be eligible for a maximum 35,040 on-call hours each fiscal year beginning July 1, [2006] 2024.

E. To determine the amount of on-call payments to a [Maryland] Specialty Referral Center from the Fund, the following apply:

(1) The cost incurred by a [Maryland Trauma] Specialty Referral Center to maintain trauma surgeons on-call for the Johns Hopkins Health System Burn Program shall be reimbursed at the lesser of the trauma center's actual on-call costs or up to [30] 60 percent of the reasonable compensation equivalent's hourly rate for the specialty, inflated to the current year by the physician compensation component of the Medicare Economic Index as designated by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services;

(2) The cost incurred by a [Maryland Trauma] Specialty Referral Center to maintain trauma surgeons on-call for the Eye Trauma Center at the Wilmer Eye Institute at The Johns Hopkins Hospital, the cost incurred to maintain ophthalmologists on-call shall be reimbursed at the lesser of the trauma center's actual on-call costs or up to [30] 60 percent of the reasonable compensation equivalent's hourly rate for the specialty, inflated to the current year by the physician compensation component of the Medicare Economic Index as designated by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services;

(3) The cost incurred by a [Maryland Trauma] Specialty Referral Center to maintain trauma surgeons on-call for the Curtis National Hand Center at Union Memorial Hospital, shall be reimbursed at the lesser of the trauma center's actual on-call costs or up to [30] 60 percent of the reasonable compensation equivalent's hourly rate for the specialty, inflated to the current year by the physician compensation component of the Medicare Economic Index as designated by the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services; and

(4) A [Maryland] Specialty Referral Center trauma center shall be eligible for a maximum 2,190 hours of trauma on-call per fiscal year, beginning July 1, [2008] 2024.

F. (text unchanged)

G. The on-call services application shall list on-call costs paid to trauma physicians at the trauma center during the reporting cycle. The on-call services application shall contain [at least] the following information:

(1)—(3) (text unchanged)

(4) The amount of time available on-call for each physician; [and]

(5) The amount paid in on-call stipends to each physician[.]; and

(6) Any other information required by the Commission to validate the claim.

H. The Commission may increase the hours and percent of RCE specified in this regulation in accordance with Health General § 19-130, Annotated Code of Maryland.

.09 Payment for [Standby] Costs at [an Out-of-State] a Pediatric Center.

A. [An out-of-State] The pediatric trauma [center that has entered into an agreement with the Maryland Institute for Emergency Medical Services Systems] centers listed below shall be eligible for an annual grant of up to [$590,000] $900,000 for [standby] documented expenses related to the provision of trauma care to Maryland residents[.]:

(1) Johns Hopkins Children’s Center; and

(2) Children’s National Medical Center.

B. [An out-of-State pediatric] Pediatric trauma [center] centers shall submit an application for [standby] documented expenses incurred in the previous fiscal year using guidelines developed by the Health Services Cost Review Commission.

C. The [out-of-State] pediatric trauma center shall submit the [standby] application for [the] its previous fiscal year to the Commission [by August 15 of each] within 45 days after the end of that fiscal year.

.10 Trauma [Equipment] Grants.

A. Eligibility.

(1) The Commission, in consultation with the Health Services Cost Review Commission and the Maryland Institute for Emergency Medical Services Systems, shall develop a process for the award of grants to Level I, Level II and Level III trauma centers [in the State] to be used [for equipment primarily used] in the delivery of trauma care.

(2) (text unchanged)

B. (text unchanged)

C. The total amount of grants awarded in a fiscal year may not [exceed 10 percent of] reduce the balance remaining in the Fund at the end of the fiscal year [immediately prior to the] to less than 15 percent of the revenue collected in that fiscal year [in which grants are awarded].

D. (text unchanged)

.11 Equitable Payment Under the Fund.

A. (text unchanged)

B. The Commission shall adjust reimbursement formulas used for Medicaid trauma services, uncompensated care trauma services, on-call payments, and standby payments to [an out-of-State] a pediatric trauma center to preserve the distribution of monies in the Fund.

C. Revenue; Payments.

(1) (text unchanged)

(2) If expected revenue in the Fund is insufficient to meet expected payments, the Medicaid differential payments, uncompensated care shortfall payments, trauma center on-call payments, and standby payments to [an out-of-State] a pediatric trauma center shall be adjusted by the same rate to maintain solvency in the Fund.

(3)—(4) (text unchanged)

D. (text unchanged)

.12 Filing of On-call Applications and Uncompensated Care Claims.

A. In order to receive a payment from the Fund for uncompensated care, a faculty practice plan, a physician [practice plan,] practice, a trauma physician, a trauma health care practitioner, or a trauma center on behalf of a trauma physician or trauma health care practitioner shall submit a timely and complete [on-call services application or an] uncompensated services claim that includes the information required in this [regulation] chapter on a form and in a manner approved by the Commission as indicated in the application.

B. In order to receive a payment from the Fund for on-call costs, a faculty practice plan, a physician practice, a trauma physician, or a trauma center on behalf of a trauma physician, shall submit a timely and complete on-call services application that includes the information required in this chapter on a form and in a manner approved by the Commission as indicated in the application.

[B.] C.[C.] D. (text unchanged)

.13 Audits.

A. The Commission, or its designee, may audit to verify the information submitted by faculty practice plans, physician [practice plans,] practices, trauma physicians, trauma health care practitioners, and trauma centers applying for grants or reimbursement from the Fund.

B. (text unchanged)

C. A person who has submitted an application for a grant or reimbursement from the Fund shall provide the Commission, or its designee, with access to all information, documents, and facilities requested by the Commission, or its designee, for purposes of auditing the person’s application.

[C.] D. (text unchanged)

.14 Appeals.

A. The Commission's executive director, or designee, shall review any appeal from an audit finding, a denial, or partial denial, of an uncompensated care shortfall payment, [or] an on-call payment[.] or grant award.

B. (text unchanged)

C. In reviewing an audit finding, a denial, or a partial denial, of an uncompensated care shortfall payment, [or] on-call payment or grant award, the executive director, or designee, shall consider all relevant factors and render a decision upon the written information, without an oral hearing, in a timely fashion. The executive director, or designee, may seek and consider further information from the applicant or supplementation of the application, if necessary or appropriate.

.15 Annual Reconciliation Reporting Requirements.

A. On or before January 31 of each year, a trauma physician or trauma health care practitioner who [have] has received uncompensated care reimbursement from the Fund during the prior calendar year shall file an annual reconciliation report with the Commission.

B. The annual reconciliation report shall include:

(1) The name, address, and telephone number of the [physician] practitioner, practice, or center;

(2) The name, address, and telephone number of the [physician] practitioner, practice, or center's contact person for the report;

(3) (text unchanged)

(4) The amount of money recovered from another payer source for claims that had been reimbursed by the Fund, including:

(a) The [physician's] practitioner’s name providing the care;

(b)—(e) (text unchanged)

(5) A certification by an authorized designee of the [physician] practitioner, practice, or center that the facts stated in the annual reconciliation report are true and accurate.

.16 Prohibited Acts.

A. (text unchanged)

B. Violation of §A of this regulation may result in:

(1) Referral to the appropriate Medicaid fraud administrative and prosecutorial authorities, to the Office of the State's Attorney, or both; [and]

(2)—(3) (text unchanged)

.17 Reporting Requirements to the General Assembly.

On or before November 1 of each year, the Commission and the HSCRC shall report to the General Assembly in accordance with Health-General Article, §19-130(f) and State Government Article, §2-1246, Annotated Code of [Maryland, on:

A. The amount of money in the Fund on the last day of the previous fiscal year;

B. The amount of payments applied for by trauma physicians and trauma centers during the previous fiscal year;

C. The amount of money distributed in the form of trauma physician and trauma center disbursements during the previous fiscal year;

D. Any recommendations for altering the manner in which trauma physicians and trauma centers are reimbursed from the Fund;

E. The costs incurred in administering the Fund during the previous fiscal year; and

F. The physician and facility costs of each trauma center and the amount that each trauma center contributes toward these costs.] Maryland.

.19 Effective Date.

Trauma services provided by a trauma [physician] health care practitioner to a trauma patient on or after July 1, [2008] 2024, are eligible for reimbursement pursuant to the provisions set forth in this chapter.

 

RANDOLPH S. SERGENT, ESQ.
Chair Maryland Health Care Commission

 

Title 13A
STATE BOARD OF EDUCATION

Subtitle 14 CHILD AND FAMILY DAY CARE

13A.14.15 Outdoor, Nature-Based Child Care License Pilot Program

Authority: Education Article, §§2-205 and 9.5-1101—9.5-1104, Annotated Code of Maryland

Notice of Proposed Action

[24-129-P]

The State Board of Education proposes to adopt new Regulations .01—.09 under new chapter, COMAR 13A.14.15 Outdoor, Nature-Based Child Care License Pilot Program.  This action was considered by the State Board of Education at their June 25, 2024 meeting.

Statement of Purpose

The purpose of this action is to establish a pilot license program for outdoor child care in response to Education Article, §9.5-1102, Annotated Code of Maryland.

Estimate of Economic Impact

I. Summary of Economic Impact. The proposed new chapter, COMAR 13A.14.15 Outdoor, Nature-Based Child Care License Pilot Program will allow child care providers the option to operate a licensed outdoor early care and education program year-round and for a full-day. The proposed regulations, which used COMAR 13A.16 Child Care Centers for the foundational component, also set forth minimum standards, as well as require comprehensive policies and procedures to be submitted with the pilot application.  The economic impact of the proposed new chapter may include added costs to MSDE for the time required to not only inspect the proposed outdoor site, but to process the applications, which may be a little more extensive in comparison to the time it takes to approve current child care (indoor) programs. Moreover, MSDE will need to bear the costs associated with training licensing staff so they can provide adequate technical assistance (TA) to Outdoor Nature-Based (ONB) Programs.

 

Applicants who choose to pursue ONB programs may have to incur uncommon costs associated with participating in the pilot, such as land use agreements, high-risk insurance coverage (for both employees and the children in care) and the need for more suitable/sustainable materials and supplies to ensure the safety of the children in care as it pertains to be outside full day, while enduring the elements. Consequently, applicants seeking approval for licensed ONB programs may need to charge parents extra fees and/or an increased tuition than most programs, in order to maintain and replace the materials and supplies ever so often, due to the increased possibility of wear and tear because of the elements. ONB programs will also be required to keep an ample supply of materials onsite, just in case a child in care should need them unexpectedly. In addition, all applicants will be required to complete specific Outdoor Nature-Based (ONB) program training.

 

Furthermore, there may be an increased economic impact on other State agencies that will need to approve applicants seeking approvals for ONB programs, prior to obtaining overall approvals from MSDE.

 

II. Types of Economic Impact.

Impacted Entity

Revenue (R+/R-)

Expenditure (E+/E-)

Magnitude

A. On issuing agency:

 

 

  Maryland State Department of Education

(E+)

$14,500

B. On other State agencies:

 

 

  Unknown

(E+)

Unknown

C. On local governments:

NONE

 

 

 

 

 

Benefit (+)

Cost (-)

Magnitude

D. On regulated industries or trade groups:

 

 

  Outdoor Nature Based Programs

(+)

Unknown

E. On other industries or trade groups:

NONE

 

 

 

 

F. Direct and indirect effects on public:

NONE

 

 

 

 

 

III. Assumptions. (Identified by Impact Letter and Number from Section II.)

A. Cost for licensing staff.

B. Joint Approvals.  Other State agencies that may be impacted are unknown at this time because this is pilot program.

D. Unknown.

Economic Impact on Small Businesses

The proposed action has a meaningful economic impact on small businesses. An analysis of this economic impact follows:

Due to the unknown costs that will be associated with the initial operation of an ONB pilot program, in addition to the requirements and stipulations set forth from MSDE, the most likely applicants for the pilot will be small businesses that are currently operating some form of ONB program or would like to expand into this space. Given the limitations on child capacity (12 children in care), business growth is necessarily constrained during the pilot years, and smaller capacity programs often experience more financial hardship when it pertains to meeting and maintaining operational requirements. 

Impact on Individuals with Disabilities

The proposed action has an impact on individuals with disabilities as follows:

Although ONB programs are required to cater to all individuals, a staff member or child with special needs may need to obtain adaptive outdoor recreational equipment/mobility devices to navigate the outdoor elements and off-road terrain, which could be costly.   

Opportunity for Public Comment

Comments may be sent to Keisha Maxwell, Administrator of Policy and Special Projects, Division of Early Childhood, Maryland State Department of Education, 200 West Baltimore Street, Baltimore, MD 21201, or call 410-767-7852, or email to earlychildhoodregs.msde@maryland.gov. Comments will be accepted through December 2, 2024. A public hearing has not been scheduled.

Open Meeting

Final action on the proposal will be considered by the State Board of Education during a public meeting to be held on January 28, 2025 at 9:00 a.m., at 200 West Baltimore Street, Baltimore, MD 21201.

.01 Purpose.

The purpose of the Outdoor, Nature-Based Child Care License Pilot Program is to license outdoor, nature-based early learning and child care programs to expand access to affordable, high-quality early learning and child care programs and investigate the benefits of outdoor, nature-based child care and learning environments.

.02 Authority.

The Outdoor, Nature-Based Child Care License Pilot Program is under the authority and supervision of the Department and shall operate for 4 years, beginning in the 2024—2025 school year.

.03 Definitions.

A. In this chapter, the following terms have the meanings indicated.

B. Terms Defined.

(1) “Department” means the Maryland State Department of Education.

(2) “Hazard” means a source of harm that:

(a) Is not obvious to the child because the potential for injury is hidden; or

(b) Is obvious to the child but is greater than a child can manage to avoid.

(3) “Office” means the Office of Child Care within the Department.

(4) “Operator” means an individual or entity that establishes a pilot under the Program.

(5) “Pilot” means an early learning or child care program:

(a) That is primarily operated outdoors; and

(b) In which children are enrolled on a regular basis for 3 or more hours per day.

(6) “Program” means the Outdoor, Nature-Based Child Care License Pilot Program.

(7) “Risk benefit assessment" means a process used to identify and document hazards and risky play elements associated with childhood outdoor play and make plans to mitigate the risk of injury to children while maintaining developmental benefits for children.

(8) “Risky play” means physical activity and play that is challenging and involves risk of physical injury or getting lost.

.04 Application.

 Each pilot applicant shall submit:

 A. An application on a Department approved form;

 B. Any variances requested under Regulation .07 of this chapter;

 C. Comprehensive policies and procedures for each of the program requirements set forth in Regulation .08 of this chapter;

 and

 D. Any additional documents required by the Department to ensure the health, safety, and welfare of children in care.

.05 Considerations for Approval.

When considering whether to approve a pilot under this chapter, the Department:

A. Shall give priority to:

(1) Existing outdoor, nature-based early learning and child care programs that are licensed as camps by the Maryland Department of Health; and

(2) Existing licensed child care centers or registered family child care homes that participate in the Maryland EXCELS Program and are seeking to expand into outdoor, nature-based early learning;

B. Shall, to the extent practicable, select a mix of rural, urban, and suburban programs; and

C. May give priority to:

(1) Areas where there are few or limited licensed early child care programs; and

(2) Areas of need where licensed early child care programs are at or near full capacity, and where access may be restricted by enrollment waitlists.

.06 Approval.

A. Upon receiving a completed application under Regulation .04 of this chapter and all documentation required by law or regulation, the office shall determine compliance with the requirements of this chapter by:

 (1) Evaluating the application and required documentation; and

 (2) Inspecting the setting proposed to be used for the pilot.

B. Except as specified at §C of this regulation, the office shall, within 60 days after completing the procedures in §A of this regulation:

(1) Issue the pilot a license;

(2) Issue the pilot a license with provisional status; or

(3) Deny the pilot a license.

C. The office may not issue the pilot a license until child care staff, sufficient in number to meet approved staff/child ratio and group size requirements as they apply to the requested child capacity, have successfully passed federal and State criminal background checks and a review of child and adult abuse and neglect records.

.07 Operator Qualifications.

A. Except as provided in §D of this regulation, the operator of a pilot shall comply with the requirements for a child care center set forth in COMAR 13A.16.

B. A pilot that seeks to operate an educational program shall comply with the educational program requirements of COMAR 13A.16.16.

C. An operator may not operate more than one pilot.

D. Variances. An operator shall specify in the application submitted under Regulation .04 of this chapter any regulations for which the operator seeks a variance to operate the pilot pursuant to COMAR 13A.16.03.08.

.08 Program Requirements.

A. In addition to the applicable requirements set forth in COMAR 13A.16, the pilot shall meet the requirements of this regulation.

B. Capacity.

(1) Notwithstanding any other provision under COMAR 13A.16, the maximum total capacity of the pilot may not exceed 12 children at any one time.

(2) The office shall determine the capacity of the pilot based on:

(a) An assessment of the hazards or risks present in the pilot’s location;

(b) The ability of staff to visually account for children in care;

(c) The square footage of natural space per child; and

(d) Applicable zoning, health, safety, and environmental standards or codes of the state and local jurisdiction in which the pilot is located.

(3) The pilot shall limit the total number of children in care at one time to the capacity approved by the office.

C.  Minimum Age Requirement. A pilot shall enroll only children who are 3 years old or older.

D.  Minimum Staff Requirements. Notwithstanding any other provision under COMAR 13A.16, a pilot shall staff the program at all times with two child care teachers.

(1) The pilot shall staff the program at all times with one child care teacher who:

(a) Meets the requirements of COMAR 13A.16.06.09A—B;

(b) Holds a current certificate indicating successful completion of wilderness first aid training that includes cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) training through the American Red Cross or a program with equivalent standards; and

 (c) Has completed 36-clock hours of training in an outdoor, nature-based teacher certification course or program approved by the Department.

(2) If the second child care teacher has not met the requirements of §D(1) of this regulation, the individual is eligible for employment as a child care teacher in the pilot program if the individual:

(a) Meets the requirements of COMAR 13A.16.06.09-01;

(b) Is enrolled in a wilderness first aid training that includes cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) training through the American Red Cross, or a program with equivalent standards; and

(c) Is enrolled in 36-clock hours of training in an outdoor, nature-based teacher certification course or program approved by the Department.     

E. Staff Professional Development. Six of the 12 hours of the continuing professional development required by COMAR 13A.16.06.09C shall be related to outdoor, nature-based early learning and child care.

F.  Location.

(1) A pilot shall:

(a) Have a permanently located child care and learning environment; or

(b) Be a roaming program, where resources are brought to the program each day.

(2) If the operator of the pilot does not own the land on which the pilot program is located, the pilot shall enter into a land use agreement with the property owner permitting the pilot’s operation.

(3) A pilot shall comply with all applicable zoning, health, safety, and environmental standards or codes of the State and local jurisdiction in which the pilot is located.

(4) Prior to the arrival of any children, a pilot shall conduct and maintain a log of a daily visual inspection of the areas of the pilot that will be used that day.

(5) A pilot shall have a method of removing or mitigating any hazards discovered in the inspected areas such as but not limited to:

(a) Overhead branches;

(b) Hazardous materials or devices;

(c) Wildlife or wildlife droppings; or

(d) Other items that threaten the health, safety, or well-being of children.

G. Square Footage. The pilot shall:

(1) Have access to at least 4,000 square feet of natural space; and    

(2) Within the 4,000 square feet of natural space, identify at least 75 square feet per child accessing the space, at any given time that is suitable for vigorous and active play and gross motor activity.

H. Communication System. A pilot shall maintain a communication system that enables staff to communicate at all times with:

(1) Other staff;

(2) Emergency services, including 911 and poison control;

(3) The Department; and

(4) Parents and guardians.

I.  Bathroom Use.

(1) The pilot shall ensure that there is adequate supervision of all children when staff or children are using the toilet.

(2) A pilot shall provide one of the following options for children and staff to meet their toileting needs:

(a) A portable chemical toilet designated for use by the pilot that is:

(i)  Nontoxic and formaldehyde-free;

(ii) Emptied regularly as needed; and

(iii) Cleaned at least once a day and more often if needed;

(b) A toilet facility in a public park, nature center, or public facility if:

(i) Staff check the bathrooms for cleanliness and safety prior to each child’s use; and

(ii) The pilot provides additional supplies as needed including toilette paper, paper towels, and fragrance free soap.

(c) If no other toilet options are available, backcountry toileting that complies with:

(i) The rules of the land use agreement with the landowner; 

(ii) All applicable state and local health, environmental, and zoning standards; and

(iii) Leave no trace standards requiring the deposit of solid human waste in catholes dug 6 – 8 inches deep at least          200 feet from water, pilot usable play space, and trails.

J. Diapering.

(1) A pilot shall have a diapering area that:

(a) Is separate from areas where food is stored, prepared, or served;

(b) Is separate from where children play or eat;

(c) Has an approved handwashing method readily available; and

(d) Has a sturdy surface or mat that:

(i) Is not torn or repaired with tape;

(ii) Is washable;

(iii) Has a moisture resistant surface that is able to be cleaned and sanitized; and

(iv) Is large enough to prevent the area under the diaper changing area from being contaminated with bodily fluids.

(2) A pilot may not leave children unattended on a diaper changing surface or mat during the diaper changing process.

(3) A pilot shall have and follow each step described in a diaper changing procedure to ensure diaper changing and disposal practices prevent cross-contamination.

(4) A pilot shall prevent the viewing by members of the public of a partially or fully undressed child during diaper changes.

K. Safe Water Sources.

(1) A pilot without access to hot or cold running water shall provide sufficient potable water from an approved source for drinking, food preparation, handwashing, dishwashing, and sanitizing.

(2) A pilot shall offer drinking water multiple times throughout the day and be always readily available to children.

L. Rest Areas and Furnishings.

(1) A pilot shall provide an approved and adequate area for children to rest;

(2) The floor of the rest area shall be lined with a tarp made of waterproof material that can be cleaned and sanitized.

(3) A pilot shall provide an age and developmentally appropriate mat for each child to use that is:

 (a) At a minimum, one inch thick;

 (b) Inspected daily before use to ensure that the mat is in good condition and free of:

 (i) Tears;

 (ii) Holes, 

 (iii) Repairs;

 (iv) Mold or mildew; and

 (v) Vermin, insect, or other infestation.

(c) Cleaned, sanitized, and air dried at least once per week or more often as needed if used by only one child, or after each use if used by more than one child; and

(d) Stored so sleeping surfaces are not touching each other unless cleaned and sanitized after each use.

(4) The mats shall be arranged so there is at least 18 inches on each side to reduce germ exposure and to allow staff access to each child during sleep time;

(5) Each child shall have the following bedding:

 (a) A clean sheet or blanket to cover the sleeping surface and a clean blanket to cover the child that is suitable given the child’s size and outdoor temperature; or

 (b) A sleeping bag suitable for outdoor temperatures.

(6)  All bedding shall:

(a) Be laundered at least once per week or more often as needed; and

(b) Stored separately from bedding used by another child unless it is cleaned and sanitized after each use.

(7) The pilot shall use a tarp overhead made of waterproof material to protect resting children from the sun, rain, or other elements.                            

 M. Food Storage. A pilot shall:

 (1) Have approved, clean, and sanitary food preparation and eating areas; and

 (2) Maintain food at safe temperatures, as defined in COMAR 10.15.03, during storage, preparation, and transportation.

N. Medication. A pilot shall:

 (1) Require safe medication storage;

 (2) Require reasonable accommodations for giving medication; and

 (3) Maintain all required medication documentation and forms.  

O. Outdoor Clothing and Equipment. A pilot shall provide families with a list of all clothing and equipment necessary to ensure all children:

(1) Are dressed for weather conditions during outdoor program time; and

(2) Have extra clothing to meet children’s safety and comfort throughout the day.

P. Safe Operating Temperatures. The pilot program shall not operate on any day when the MSDE Child Care Weather Watch chart posted on the MSDE website is:

(1) In the red zone for the Heat Index Chart; or

(2) In the yellow or red zone for the Wind-Chill Factor Chart.      

Q. Sheltering During Inclement Weather. A pilot shall take appropriate action to protect the health, safety, and welfare of the children and shall have:

(1) Plans to relocate or seek shelter in any alternative locations during inclement weather conditions and other possible hazards including but not limited to:

(a) Earthquake;

(b) Lightning storm, tornado, hurricane, or flooding;

(c) Air quality emergency ordered by a public safety authority;

(d) Lockdown notification ordered by a public safety authority; or

(e) Other similar incidents.

(2) Plans for days when the MSDE Child Care Weather Watch chart posted on the MSDE website is in the yellow zones for the Heat Index Chart.

R. Accommodations. A pilot shall provide reasonable accommodations for children with disabilities or special health care needs.

S. Child Safety.

(1) A pilot shall use developmentally and age appropriate practices to teach children about:

(a) Boundaries;

(b) Self-regulation for outdoor and risky play; and

(c) Encountering members of the public not affiliated with the pilot.

(2) If a child goes missing, the pilot shall implement the steps of the emergency and safety plan required by COMAR 13A.16.10.01, including but not limited to:

(a) Immediately notifying 911 to summon fire, police, and rescue services;

(b) Immediately notifying the parent or guardian of any lost or missing child;

(c) Notifying child protective services as soon as practicable; and

(d) Notifying the Department as soon as practicable.                  

T. Risky Play. The risk benefit assessment shall:

(1) Be submitted to the office on the approved form provided by the Department; and

(2) Identify:

(a) The types of risk present at the site or sites, including all hazards, that will be used by the pilot on a regular basis and explain how risks may change throughout the different seasons of the year; and

(b) The potential benefits to children and the likelihood and severity of potential injury, and methods of mitigating hazards for risky play activities, including, but not limited to the following:

(i) Climbing natural features;

(ii) Water activities or supervision near bodies of water;

(iii) Using sharp tools;

(iv) Plant foraging;

(v)  Pilot program pets;

(vi) Foraging or egg collection and consumption; and

(vii) Activities near cliffs, steep slopes, or other natural features or hazards.

U. Campfire Activity Supervision and Safety.        

(1) A pilot shall have written permission from the landowner and any necessary permits before engaging in any campfire activities.

(2) A pilot shall have a signed and dated written permission for campfire activities from each child's parent or guardian in the form of a fire hazard waiver. There may not be any campfire activities if the pilot does not have a fire hazard waiver for each child in attendance on that day.

(3) A pilot shall train staff in the safe fire practices provided by the U.S. Forest Service and in this regulation.

(4) A pilot shall ensure that all staff:

(a) Are able to properly build and extinguish a fire;

(b) Are properly trained in how to use an ABC fire extinguisher; and

(c) Are prepared to smother a fire on a child's clothing or hair using equipment including but not limited to:

(i) Water;

(ii) A fire suppression blanket; or

(iii) A fire extinguisher, as permitted.

(5) Before starting a campfire activity, a pilot shall have the necessary equipment and supplies to safely extinguish a campfire including but not limited to:

(a) Sufficient water;

(b) A shovel; and

(c) An ABC professionally certified fire extinguisher, as permitted.

(6) A pilot shall have and properly maintain a first-aid kit near the campfire that contains first-aid supplies made specifically to treat fire related injuries including but not limited to:

 (a) A fire suppression blanket; and

 (b) Sterile, non-adhesive bandages.

(7) A pilot shall create a clearly visible boundary at least three feet away from the outer edge of the fire pit or structure containing the fire.

(a) This boundary may be marked by:

(i) A rope;

(ii) Large rocks; or

(iii) A seating area made of logs or camp chairs.

(b) At all times, the area within the three-foot boundary shall:

(i) Be clear of tripping hazards such as bags or other materials; and

(ii) Have space in between the logs, camp chairs, or other seating so that children and adults may easily move into and out of the seating area.

(8) Prior to any campfire activity, a pilot shall use developmentally appropriate teaching practices to ensure children understand safe behavior around a campfire.

(9) A pilot shall require campfires to be built and extinguished according to safe fire practices provided by the U.S. Forest Service and the campfire:

(a) May not be built during periods of high fire danger in the area;

(b) May not be more than 2 feet in diameter;

(c) Shall be in a fire pit or structure that is designed for the express purpose of safely containing a campfire and, when applicable, the fire pit or structure shall contain an approved bottom; and

(d) May not use accelerant or burn materials that release toxic substances, such as chemically treated wood, rubber, or plastics.

(10) While campfires are burning, a pilot staff member shall remain within the 3-foot boundary around the fire to respond to any fire tending needs and to prevent children from coming into close contact with the fire.

(11) Adults who tend to the fire must tie back long hair and secure loose clothing to reduce the risk of catching fire.

(12) The pilot shall prevent children from:

(a) Entering the 3-foot boundary around the campfire;

(b) Running and pushing within 6 feet of the edge of the firepit; and

(c) Inhaling campfire smoke.

(13) A pilot shall require completion of a campfire activity log on a Department approved form for each campfire activity.

(14) Each pilot may not have more than one campfire activity at any time.

V. Handbook. A pilot shall provide each parent or guardian a handbook containing written policies and procedures for each of the requirements of this regulation.

W. Waivers. A pilot shall require parents or guardians to sign a risk waiver that acknowledges and accepts the potential hazards and risks associated with the pilot.

X. Records. A pilot shall store all records required under COMAR 13A.16 and this regulation in a manner that protects the records from damage from the elements.

.09 Evaluation.

On or before October 1st of each year, the operator shall submit to the Department the following information for the prior school year:

A. The number of children and families being served by the pilot;

B. The number of participating providers who enrolled in the Maryland EXCELS Program;

C. The number of children who participated in the Child Care Scholarship Program;

D. The number of children served by the infant and early childhood mental health support services program; and

E. The number of children who participated in a publicly funded prekindergarten program.

 

CAREY M. WRIGHT, Ed.D.
State Superintendent of Schools

 

Title 14
INDEPENDENT AGENCIES

Subtitle 01 PRESCRIPTION DRUG AFFORDABILITY BOARD

14.01.04 Cost Review Study Process

Authority: Health-General Article, §§ 21-2C-03(f)(1), 21-2C-08(b), 21-2C-09, Annotated Code of Maryland

Notice of Proposed Action

[24-136-P]

The Maryland Prescription Drug Affordability Board proposes to amend Regulation .05 under COMAR 14.01.04 Cost Review Study Process.  This action was considered and approved by the Maryland Prescription Drug Affordability Board at a public meeting held on September 10, 2024, notice of which was provided by publication on the Board's website at https://pdab.maryland.gov/Pages/2024-Board-Meeting.aspx, as required under General Provisions Article, §3-302(c), Annotated Code of Maryland.

Statement of Purpose

The purpose of this action is to  make technical corrections to clarify analyses and data sources, include additional factors for study, and establish procedures for the preliminary determination and cost review study report that align with the procedures for reviewing policies and setting upper payment limits.

Estimate of Economic Impact

The proposed action has no economic impact.

Economic Impact on Small Businesses

The proposed action has minimal or no economic impact on small businesses.

Impact on Individuals with Disabilities

The proposed action has no impact on individuals with disabilities.

Opportunity for Public Comment

Comments may be sent to Christina Shaklee, Health Policy Analyst Advanced, Maryland Prescription Drug Affordability Board, 16900 Science Drive, Suite 112-114, Bowie, MD 20715, or call 410-703-7015, or email to pdab.regs@maryland.gov. Comments will be accepted through December 2, 2024. A public hearing has not been scheduled.

.05 Cost Review Study.

A. The Board may determine:

(1) Whether use of the prescription drug product has led or will lead to:

(a) (text unchanged)

(b) High out-of-pocket costs for patients; [and]

(2) Whether the use that has led to affordability challenges or high out-of-pocket costs is consistent with:

(a) (text unchanged)

(b) Standard medical practice[.]; and

(3) The circumstances under which the prescription drug product has or will lead to an affordability challenge to the State health care system or high out-of-pocket costs to patients under §A(1) of this regulation. 

B. Analyses and Data Compilation.

(1) (text unchanged)

(2) These data and analyses may be:

(a)—(e) (text unchanged)

(f) Derived from the MCDB, any claims set of the MCDB, and any other databases containing relevant information; [or]

(g) Derived from reports generated by U.S. governmental entities, State governmental entities, foreign governmental and quasi-governmental agencies, and U.S. and foreign non-profit organizations; or

(h) Derived from quantitative and qualitative data collected by Board staff.

C. Factors Considered in Cost Review Study.

(1) To the extent practicable, the Board may consider the following data, information, and analyses in conducting a cost review study:

(a)(b) (text unchanged)

(c) Therapeutic Alternatives:

(i) The average price concession, discount, or rebate the manufacturer provides or is expected to provide to health plans in the State for therapeutic alternatives; [and]

(ii) The WAC, AWP, NADAC, SAAC, ASP, and FSS at which each therapeutic alternative has been sold in the State; and

(iii) The utilization, costs, and out-of-pocket costs for therapeutic alternatives;

(d) Patient Access:

(i) —(ii) (text unchanged)

(iii) The current or expected dollar value of drug-specific patient access programs that are supported by the manufacturer for the drug product under review and the policies surrounding and implementing such programs;

(e)—(f) (text unchanged)

(g) Additional Board Factors:

(i)—(x) (text unchanged)

(xi) Analysis of the market context of the prescription drug product including the prescription drug product’s lifecycle management, patent management, regulatory exclusivities, and product [copying] hopping;

(xii) The utilization and pricing of therapeutically equivalent drug products;

(xiii) Analysis of the impact of State and federal regulatory and compliance issues related to the prescription drug product;

(xiv) Input from State and local governmental entities and the entities’ contractors such as health plans and plan administrators;

(xv) Impact of the utilization and spending for the prescription drug product on public budgets and comparison of the spending on the prescription drug product to relevant benchmarks;

(xvi) Analyses and research including literature review by Board staff in response to information submitted by an entity under Regulation .04 of this chapter, or through any public comment or public input procedure;      

[(xii)] (xvii) —[(xiii)] (xviii) (text unchanged)

(2) (text unchanged)

D. At an open meeting, the Board may:

(1)—(4) (text unchanged)

(5) [Determine] Preliminarily determine whether:

(a)—(b) (text unchanged)

E. (text unchanged)

F. Preliminary Determination.

(1) In accordance with §C of this regulation, the Board may make a preliminary determination of whether use of the prescription drug product has led or will lead to affordability challenges for the State health care system or high out-of-pocket costs for patients.

(2) A preliminary determination is non-final and subject to revision and modification.

(3) Preliminary Determination of Affordability Challenge.

(a) Board staff shall prepare a draft of the preliminary determination cost review report that summarizes the information considered by the Board in conducting the cost review study, the Board’s deliberations, the circumstances or indicia reflecting the affordability challenge, and the Board’s preliminary determination.

(b) The public may comment on the draft of the preliminary determination cost review report.

[F.] G.  Final Determination Concerning Affordability Challenge and Final Cost Review Study Report.

(1) The Board may vote to finalize the preliminary determination and approve the draft cost review report as final.

(2) The Board’s determination of whether a prescription drug has or will lead to an affordability challenge is not final until the final cost review report is adopted by the Board.

(3) The Board shall create and adopt a final report of the cost review study that, to the extent permitted by Health-General Article, §§21-2C-03 and 21-2C-10, Annotated Code of Maryland, summarizes the information considered by the Board in conducting the cost review study, the Board’s deliberations, and the Board’s determination.

 

ANDREW W. YORK

Executive Director

 

Subtitle 04 MARYLAND TECHNOLOGY DEVELOPMENT CORPORATION

Authority: Economic Development Article, §§10-409, 10-4A-27, 10–488, and 10–462, Annotated Code of Maryland

Notice of Proposed Action

[24-143-P]

The Maryland Technology Development Corporation proposes to:

(1) Amend Regulation .04 under COMAR 14.04.02 Investment Programs;

(2) Amend Regulation .05 under COMAR 14.04.05 Seed Funds;

(3) Adopt new Regulations .01—.06 under a new chapter, COMAR 14.04.10 Equitech Growth Fund; and

(4) Adopt new Regulations .01—.05 under a new chapter, COMAR 14.04.11 Pava LaPere Innovation Acceleration Grant Program. 

This action was considered by the Maryland Technology Development Corporation's Board of Directors at an Open Board Meeting.

Statement of Purpose

The purpose of this action is to update the regulations to conform to Ch. 462, Acts of 2023 and Ch. 711, Acts of 2024, by adding to the Maryland Technology Development Corporation (“TEDCO”) the Equitech Growth Fund and the Pava La Pere Innovation Acceleration Grant Program, respectively. The proposed action adopts new regulations for the Equitech Growth Fund and the Pava LaPere Innovation Acceleration Grant Program. The action also makes certain administrative changes to conform with the statutory provisions. The Equitech Growth Fund supports the economic competitiveness and inclusive growth of emerging and advanced industries in Maryland through the creation of supporting infrastructure assets, resources, and a diverse workforce that builds the strengths of Maryland’s economy. Awards from the Equitech Growth Fund will be made in the form of awards grants, investments, loans, or other financial assistance from Equitech Growth Fund to public, nonprofit, or private entities in Maryland, including institutions of higher education and public-private partnerships (P3s).The Pava LaPere Innovation Acceleration Grant Program is established to provide grants to certain technology–based start–up companies that are founded by students of a post-secondary institution located in the Baltimore-Columbia-Towson Metropolitan Statistical Area in Maryland. 

Estimate of Economic Impact

I. Summary of Economic Impact. The proposed regulations introduce guidelines for administration of the Equitech Growth Fund and the administration of the Pava La Pere Innovation Acceleration Grant Program. Equitech Growth Fund: is expected to have a meaningful economic impact in Maryland. The Pava La Pere Innovation Acceleration Grant Program: The program and related regulations could potentially have a minor economic impact. The Pava La Pere Innovation Acceleration Grant Program awards $50,000 to qualifying businesses founded by students of postsecondary institutions located in the Baltimore-Columbia-Towson Metropolitan Statistical Area (MSA). These companies must have their principal place of business in the Baltimore-Columbia-Towson MSA.

 

II. Types of Economic Impact.

Impacted Entity

Revenue (R+/R-)

Expenditure (E+/E-)

Magnitude

A. On issuing agency:

 

 

 Maryland Technology Development Corporation

(R+)

Meaningful

B. On other State agencies:

NONE

 

 

 

 

C. On local governments:

NONE

 

 

 

 

 

Benefit (+)

Cost (-)

Magnitude

D. On regulated industries or trade groups:

NONE

 

 

 

 

E. On other industries or trade groups:

 

 

Small Businesses/Entrepreneurs 

(+)

Meaningful

F. Direct and indirect effects on public:

 

 

Students of Postsecondary Institutions in the Baltimore Columbia Towson Metropolitan Statistical Area (MSA).

(+)

Minor

 

III. Assumptions. (Identified by Impact Letter and Number from Section II.)

A. The Equitech Growth Fund includes $5 million annually for 10 years and is administered by the Maryland Technology Development Corporation

E. The Equitech Growth Fund includes $5 million annually for 10 years for infrastructure and/or workforce development projects. These projects are intended to accelerate technology-based innovation ecosystem growth. It is anticipated that small businesses and entrepreneurs will benefit from the impact of projects.

F. The Pava LaPere Innovation Acceleration Grant Program awards $50,000 in funding to qualifying businesses founded by students of postsecondary institutions located in the Baltimore-Columbia-Towson Metropolitan Statistical Area (MSA).

Economic Impact on Small Businesses

The proposed actions may have a meaningful economic impact on small businesses. An analysis of this economic impact follows:

The Pava La Pere Innovation Acceleration Grant Program awards $50,000 in funding to qualifying businesses founded by students of postsecondary institutions located in the Baltimore-Columbia-Towson Metropolitan Statistical Area (MSA), providing capital to further operations and commercialization. The infusion of the funds into the ecosystem is anticipated to have net increase in funding for small businesses and the subsequent reallocation of funds between businesses is anticipated to result in a meaningful impact on small businesses. The Equitech Growth Fund provides awards grants, investments, loans, or other financial assistance from EGF to public, nonprofit, or private entities in the State, including institutions of higher education and public-private partnerships (P3s) for projects that support the creation of supporting infrastructure assets, resources, and a diverse workforce that builds the strengths of the State’s economy The resulting projects are anticipated to have a meaningful impact on small businesses as beneficiaries from the infrastructure and resources supported by the funding from the program.

Impact on Individuals with Disabilities

The proposed action has no impact on individuals with disabilities.

Opportunity for Public Comment

Comments may be sent to Alex Choi, Executive Director, Government Program Development, Affairs, & Research, Maryland Technology Development Corporation, 10960 Grantchester Way, Suite 120, Columbia, MD 21044, or call 410-715-4192, or email to achoi@tedcomd.com. Comments will be accepted through December 2, 2024. A public hearing has not been scheduled.

 

14.04.02 Investment Programs

Authority: Economic Development Article, §§10-409 and 10-4A-27, Annotated Code of Maryland

.04 Eligibility.

A. Eligibility Criteria. Except as provided in §C of this regulation, TEDCO may invest in an applicant if TEDCO determines the applicant meets all of the following criteria:

(1)—(3) (text unchanged)

(4) The applicant agrees to execute a securities repurchase agreement or an equivalent commitment, each with a duration of five years, subject to the terms [determined by TEDCO] and in the form approved by the Office of the Attorney General;

(5)—(9) (text unchanged)

B.—E. (text unchanged)

 

14.04.05 Seed Funds

Authority: Economic Development Article, §10-409, Annotated Code of Maryland

.05 Eligibility.

A. (text unchanged)

B. Eligibility for Specific Seed Funds.

(1) (text unchanged)

(2) For Cybersecurity Investment Fund investments, the business:

(a) Shall be focused on information technology security, including the protection of networked devises, networks, programs, and data from unintended or unauthorized access, change, or destruction; and

(b) (text unchanged)

(3)—(4) (text unchanged)

 

14.04.10 Equitech Growth Fund

Authority: Economic Development Article, §10-488, Annotated Code of Maryland

.01 Definitions.

A. Except as otherwise provided in this subtitle, the following terms have the meanings indicated.

B. Terms Defined.

(1) “Award” means grants, equity financing, debt financing, and other financial assistance.

(2) “Commission” means the Equitech Growth Commission.

(3) “Equitech Growth Fund” means the fund described in §10-488 of the Act.

(4) “Infrastructure” means to build or expand equipment, systems, resources, and facilities in the State to support, attract, and retain businesses in the State.

(5) Metrics.

(a) “Metrics” means performance criteria and measures established by the applicant for the applicant’s project.

(b) “Metrics” may include but is not limited to the project’s potential impact on businesses, industry growth, jobs, diversity, equity and inclusion, and economic development in the State.

(c) “Metrics” shall be consistent with the 10-year goals in the strategic plan developed by the Commission.

(6) “Nonprofit” means a tax-exempt entity under the Internal Revenue Code, organized for charitable, educational, or socially beneficial purposes.

(7) “Other sources of funding” means funding received from a non-profit or a public entity.

(8) “Private entity” or “private sector” means a non-governmental enterprise for profit that is not affiliated, through ownership or control with the federal, state, or a local government.

(9) Public Entity

(a) “Public entity” means a unit of the State or a local government.

(b) “Public entity” includes political subdivision, trusts, and instrumentalities of the State.

(10) “State” means the State of Maryland.

(11) Workforce Development.

(a) “Workforce development” means a coordination of programs and policies to create, sustain, and retain a viable workforce.

(b) “Workforce development” includes educational programs, degree and non-degree programs, certifications, training, and exposure to career pathways in Science, Technology, Engineering, Arts, or Math for all ages.

.02 Eligibility.

A. Eligibility Criteria. TEDCO may make an award to an applicant, if TEDCO determines the applicant meets all of the following criteria:

(1) The applicant is a public, nonprofit, or private entity in the State, including institutions of higher education and public-private partnerships;

(2) The applicant’s proposed project is primarily focused on workforce development or infrastructure in the State;

(3) The applicant shall use the award proceeds and the leveraged funds in the State;

(4) The applicant shall have secured verified funding commitments from the private sector, federal sources, and other sources of funding in an amount to be approved by TEDCO,; the receipt of which by the applicant shall be a condition of disbursing the TEDCO funds; and

(5) The applicant’s proposal shall be consistent with the 10-year goals in the strategic plan developed by the Commission.

B. Verification of Information Submitted to TEDCO. An applicant shall verify, in a form approved by the Office of the Attorney General, the information the applicant submits to TEDCO in an application for an award.

.03 Procedures and Guidelines for Award Decisions.

A. In General. In its sole discretion, TEDCO shall select eligible applicants for an award under the Equitech Growth Fund based on a written application, applicant’s proposal, and TEDCO’s diligence.

B. Application Process.

(1) In General. TEDCO shall make available to the public on or through its website:

(a) An application process for awards under the Equitech Growth Fund; and

(b) Deadlines, if any, to submit the applications.

(2) Required Information. Through an application, an applicant shall provide a proposal for its project with information sufficient for TEDCO to establish eligibility for an award, including:

(a) Whether the applicant meets the eligibility requirements as set forth in the Act and under Regulation .02 of this chapter;

(b) Detailed description of the proposed project including, but not limited to, current and proposed financial budgets, and the project’s goals to support workforce development or infrastructure in the State;

(c) Reasonable metrics of the project’s potential impact on the State’s ecosystem; and

(d) Any other information required to evaluate program criteria and, if applicable, diversity and inclusion criteria under §B(5) of this regulation.

(3) Preliminary Evaluation of Eligibility. TEDCO's program staff:

(a) Shall perform an initial review of each application in accordance with the Act and Regulation .02 of this chapter; and

(b) May review the application for program criteria under §B(5) of this regulation and may examine the applicant’s project proposal, budgets, metrics, and other documents.

(4) Eligibility Determination. Within 45 days from the date an applicant submits the application to TEDCO, TEDCO shall notify the applicant if TEDCO finds the applicant ineligible for an award under Regulation .02 of this chapter.

(5) Program Criteria, Diversity and Inclusion Criteria, and TEDCO’s Diligence.

(a) If the applicant is eligible for an award by TEDCO, TEDCO shall consider the program criteria as set forth in §B(5)(b) of this regulation and diversity and inclusion criteria as set forth in §B(5)(c) of this regulation and shall conduct diligence as set forth in §B(5)(d) of this regulation.

(b) Program Criteria. TEDCO shall use the following criteria as the basis of a scoring rubric to evaluate eligible applicants:

(i) Whether the applicant’s project is viable, sustainable, and has a high probability for success;

(ii) The degree to which the applicant’s project addresses a need in the State’s ecosystem;

(iii) The degree to which the applicant’s project will leverage funding from private sector, federal sources, or other sources of funding;

(iv) The extent to which the applicant’s project is consistent with the 10-year goals in the strategic plan developed by the Commission;

(v) The analysis of the project’s metrics and potential impact on the State’s ecosystem; and

(vi) Adherence to the application process.

(c) Diversity and Inclusion Criteria. TEDCO shall consider whether:

(i) The applicant’s project has the potential to result in a positive economic development impact for a region or an area which is economically distressed or a rural area or a rural community; and

(ii) A founder of the applicant or a member of the applicant’s executive leadership has self-identified as a member of a group that is economically disadvantaged.

(d) Diligence. TEDCO’s diligence may include:

(i) Review of applicant’s proposal, budgets, and metrics;

(ii) Site visits;

(iii) Validation of claims and assumptions made in the application; and

(iv) At TEDCO’s sole discretion, an applicant’s presentation and interview.

C. Scoring. TEDCO shall score each applicant in accordance with a uniform scoring rubric based on the program criteria and diversity and inclusion criteria.

D. Final Approval. The Chief Executive Officer, in the Chief Executive Officer’s sole discretion, shall base TEDCO’s final decision regarding an award to an eligible applicant on:

(1) The application;

(2) The aggregate scores from the evaluation of the program criteria and diversity and inclusion criteria under §C of this regulation;

(3) The likelihood that applicant’s project will lead to economic growth through workforce development or infrastructure in the State; and

(4) The amount of money available for this program.

E. Rejected Applicants. If an applicant is rejected for an award, TEDCO shall notify the applicant in writing.

.04 Process for Monitoring.

A. Project Work-In-Progress. When the applicant’s project is work-in-progress, the applicant shall provide interim and final progress reports of the project including a detailed description of the use of award funds on a regular basis, as required from time to time by TEDCO.

B. Project Completion. Upon completion of the project, the applicant shall provide impact reports to TEDCO annually for a period of up to 5 years following the completion, in such form as TEDCO may specify from time to time. Impact reports shall include an analysis of the achievement of the project’s metrics.

.05 Nondiscrimination.

An applicant shall comply with all applicable federal, State, and local laws regarding discrimination and equal opportunity in employment.

.06 Program Administration.

An action or decision required or permitted to be taken or made by TEDCO under the Act or these regulations, including execution of award financing documents, may be taken by the Chief Executive Officer or Chief Executive Officer’s designee.

 

14.04.11 Pava LaPere Innovation Acceleration Grant Program

Authority: Economic Development Article, §10-462, Annotated Code of Maryland

.01 Definitions.

A. Except as otherwise provided in this subtitle, the following terms have the meanings indicated.

B. Terms Defined.

(1) “Award” means a $50,000 grant to a qualifying applicant.

(2) “Baltimore-Columbia-Towson MSA” means the Metropolitan Statistical Area in Maryland, as defined by the United States Office of Budget and Management.

(3) “Chief Executive Officer designee” means a TEDCO employee to whom the TEDCO’s Chief Executive Officer has designated decision making authority.

(4) Metrics.

(a) “Metrics” means performance criteria and measures established by the applicant for the applicant’s grant proposal.

(b) “Metrics” may include but is not limited to the project’s potential impact on fostering growth of the entrepreneurial innovation ecosystem in the State.

(5) “Postsecondary institution located in the Baltimore-Columbia-Towson MSA” means universities and colleges stated in §10-462.1 of the Act.

(6) “Program” means the Pava LaPere Innovation Acceleration Grant Program.

.02 Eligibility.

A. Eligibility Criteria. TEDCO may make an award to an applicant, if TEDCO determines the applicant meets all of the following criteria:

(1) The applicant is a technology-based start-up company;

(2) The founder of the applicant are students of a postsecondary institution located in the Baltimore-Columbia-Towson MSA;

(3) The applicant has its principal place of business located in the Baltimore-Columbia-Towson MSA; and

(4) The applicant agrees to use at least 20 percent of the award to hire third-party consultants for planning, development, regulatory compliance, or other technical assistance related to establishing a start-up company unless upon applicant’s request, TEDCO provides a waiver thereto.

B. Verification of Information Submitted to TEDCO. An applicant shall verify, in a form approved by the Office of the Attorney General, the information the applicant submits to TEDCO in an application for an award.

.03 Procedures and Guidelines for Award Decisions.

A. In General. TEDCO shall select eligible applicants for an award under the Program based on a written application, applicant’s proposal, and TEDCO’s diligence.

B. Application Process.

(1) In General. TEDCO shall make available to the public on or through its website:

(a) An application process for awards under the Program; and

(b) Deadlines, if any, to submit the applications.

(2) Required Information. Through an application, an applicant shall provide a grant proposal including information sufficient for TEDCO to establish eligibility for an award, including:

(a) Whether the applicant meets the eligibility requirements as set forth in the Act and under Regulation .02 of this chapter;

(b) Detailed description of the grant proposal including, but not limited to, current and proposed financial budgets, business proposal, and the project’s potential impact on growth of the entrepreneurial innovation ecosystem in the State;

(c) The address of applicant’s principal business operations in the Baltimore-Columbia-Towson MSA and a copy of the lease, license agreement, deed, or other document that evidences the applicant’s right to occupy the physical location of the principal business operations;

(d) Reasonable metrics of the project’s potential impact; and

(e) Any other information required to evaluate program criteria.

(3) Preliminary Evaluation of Eligibility. The Program:

(a) Shall perform an initial review of each application in accordance with the Act and Regulation .02 of this chapter; and

(b) May review the application for program criteria under §B(5) of this regulation and may examine the applicant’s grant proposal, business plan, budget, metrics, and other information.

(4) Eligibility Determination. Within 45 days from the date an applicant submits the application to the program, the program shall notify the applicant if TEDCO finds the applicant ineligible for an award under Regulation .02 of this chapter.

(5) Program Criteria. The Program shall consider the following criteria as the basis of a scoring rubric to evaluate eligible applicants:

(a) Whether the applicant’s grant proposal is viable, and has a reasonable probability for success;

(b) The analysis of the grant proposal’s metrics and potential impact; and

(c) Adherence to the application process.

(6) Diligence. Program diligence may include:

(a) Review of applicant’s grant proposal, budgets, and metrics;

(b) Validation of claims and assumptions made in the application; and

(c) An applicant’s presentation and interview.

C. Scoring. The Program shall score each applicant in accordance with a uniform scoring rubric based on the program criteria.

D. Final Approval. The Chief Executive Officer or a Chief Executive Officer’s designee, shall base TEDCO’s final decision regarding an award to an eligible applicant on:

(1) The application; and

(2) The aggregate scores from the evaluation of the program criteria under §C of this regulation.

E. Rejected Applicants. If an applicant is rejected for a grant award, the program shall notify the applicant in writing.

F. Award Amount. In accordance with the Act, program award amounts are $50,000 to each qualifying applicant, subject to funding availability.

.04 Nondiscrimination.

An applicant shall comply with all applicable federal, State, and local laws regarding discrimination and equal opportunity in employment.

.05 Program Administration.

An action or decision required or permitted to be taken or made by TEDCO under the Act or these regulations, including execution of award financing documents, may be taken by the Chief Executive Officer or Chief Executive Officer’s designee.

 

JIGITA PATEL

Senior Assistant Attorney General

 

Subtitle 35 MARYLAND HEALTH BENEFIT EXCHANGE

Authority: Insurance Article, §31-106(c)(1)(iv), Annotated Code of Maryland

Notice of Proposed Action

[24-140-P]

The Maryland Health Benefit Exchange proposes to:  

(1) Amend Regulations .08, .11, .13, .18, and .19 under COMAR 14.35.07 Eligibility Standards for Enrollment in a Qualified Health Plan, Eligibility Standards for APTC and CSR, and Eligibility Standards for Enrollment in a Catastrophic Qualified Health‎ Plan in the Individual Exchange; and

(2) Amend Regulation .04 under COMAR 14.35.14 Termination, Cancellation, and Rescission of Qualified Health Plan. 

 

This action was considered at the September 16, 2024 meeting of the MHBE Board of Trustees.

Statement of Purpose

The purpose of this action is to  bring MHBE into alignment with the 2025 Notice of Benefit and Payment Parameters and make a technical correction to eliminate redundant subsections in 14.35.07.11.

Estimate of Economic Impact

The proposed action has no economic impact.

Economic Impact on Small Businesses

The proposed action has minimal or no economic impact on small businesses.

Impact on Individuals with Disabilities

The proposed action has no impact on individuals with disabilities.

Opportunity for Public Comment

Comments may be sent to Becca Lane, Senior Health Policy Analyst, Maryland Health Benefit Exchange, 750 E. Pratt St., 6th Floor, Baltimore, MD 21202, or call 410-547-7371, or email to becca.lane@maryland.gov. Comments will be accepted through December 2, 2024. A public hearing has not been scheduled.

 

14.35.07 Eligibility Standards for Enrollment in a Qualified Health Plan, Eligibility Standards for APTC and CSR, and Eligibility Standards for Enrollment in a Catastrophic Qualified Health‎ Plan in the Individual Exchange

Authority: Insurance Article, §31-106(c)(1)(iv), Annotated Code of Maryland

.08 Eligibility Requirements for Advance Payments of the Premium Tax Credit.

A.—D. (text unchanged)

E. For 2024 and prior years, [A] a tax filer may not be eligible for APTC if:

(1)—(2)

F. Beginning [2024] 2025, [pursuant to guidance from HHS,] a tax filer may not be eligible for APTC if:

(1) (text unchanged)

G.- K. (text unchanged)

.11 Enrollment in a QHP or Insurance Affordability Program Through the Individual Exchange.

A.—E. (text unchanged)

F. Payment of First Month’s Premium.

(1)—(2) (text unchanged.

[(3) Effective January 1, 2020, the first month’s premium payment to effectuate prospective coverage for QHP selections made during an annual open enrollment period or during a special enrollment period described in Regulations .13E(4), .18D (1)—(2), and .19I of this chapter shall be due on a uniformly applied date specified by the authorized carrier of the QHP that is no earlier than the coverage effective date but no later than 30 calendar days from the coverage effective date.]

[(4)] (3) (text unchanged)

[(5) Effective January 1, 2020, the first month’s premium payment to effectuate prospective coverage for QHP selections made during a special enrollment period described in Regulations .12F, .13E(1) and (3), .14F, .15G, .16F, .17F, .18D(3), and .19A of this chapter shall be due on a uniformly applied date specified by the authorized carrier that is no earlier than the coverage effective date or no later than 30 calendar days from the date the carrier receives the enrollment transaction from the Individual Exchange or the coverage effective date, whichever is later.]

[(6)] (4)—(9)] [(9)] (7) (text unchanged)

G.—I. (text unchanged)

.13 Special Enrollment Periods — Change in Family Status Through the Individual Exchange.

A.—D. (text unchanged)

E. Enrollment in a QHP selected by a qualified individual, an enrollee, the qualified individual’s dependent, or the enrollee’s dependent during a special enrollment period under this regulation shall be effective:

(1)—(3) (text unchanged)

(4) For divorces or legal separation:

(a) Before January 1, 2025,

[(a)] (i) (text unchanged)

[(b)] (ii) The first day of the next following month for QHP selections received by the Individual Exchange between the 16th and the last day of a month[.]; or

(b) On or after January 1, 2025, the first day of the month following the date that the Individual Exchange receives the QHP selection.

.18 Special Enrollment Period — Permanent Move.

A.—C. (text unchanged)

D. The effective date of coverage for a qualified individual, enrollee, qualified individual’s dependent, or enrollee’s dependent who is determined eligible for the special enrollment period under this regulation and selects enrollment in a QHP during the special enrollment period under §C of this regulation shall be:

(1) Before January 1, 2025:

[(1)] (a)[(2)] (b) (text unchanged)

[(3)] (c) The first day of the second following month for QHP selections received by the Individual Exchange after the date of the permanent move between the 16th and the last day of a month[.]; or

(2) On or after January 1, 2025, the first day of the month following the date that the Individual Exchange receives the QHP selection.

.19 Special Enrollment Period—Other.

A.—L. (text unchanged)

M. A qualified individual, an enrollee, a qualified individual’s dependent, or an enrollee’s dependent is eligible to enroll during any month of the year if:

(1) They are eligible for APTC; and

(2) Their household income does not exceed 150 percent of the federal poverty line. [; and

(3) The tax filer’s applicable percentage for purposes of calculating the premium assistance amount, as defined in §36B(b)(3)(A) of the Internal Revenue Code, is set at zero.]

N. (text unchanged)

O. Enrollment in a QHP selected by a qualified individual, an enrollee, the qualified individual’s dependent, or the enrollee’s dependent during a special enrollment period under this regulation shall be effective:

(1) For the special enrollment period under §A of this regulation (newly eligible or ineligible for APTC), §E of this regulation (qualified individual or dependent is an Indian) and §F of this regulation (changes in citizenship status):

(a) Before January 1, 2025:

[(a)] (i) (text unchanged)

[(b)] (ii) The first day of the following month after the Individual Exchange receives the QHP selection when the plan has been selected between the 16th and the last day of the month; or

(b) On or after January 1, 2025, the first day of the month following the date that the Individual Exchange receives the QHP selection.

(2) (text unchanged)

(3) For the special enrollment period under §G of this regulation (previously incarcerated) and §J of this regulation (newly eligible for an individual coverage HRA or a QSEHRA):

(a) Before January 1, 2025:

[(a)] (i) (text unchanged)

[(b)] (ii) The first day of the following month for QHP selections received by the Individual Exchange after the release date or the triggering event; or

(b) On or after January 1, 2025:

(i) The first day of the month following the date that the Individual Exchange receives the QHP selection; or

(ii) On the date of the triggering event, if the triggering event is on the first day of a month;

(4) (text unchanged)

(5) For special enrollment periods [other than the special enrollment periods specified in §O(1)—(4),] under §B, §C (Maryland Easy Enrollment Health Insurance Program), §L (change or triggering event not included in this regulation under 45 CFR §155.420), and §M (eligible for APTC and household income does not exceed 150 percent of the federal poverty line), the first day of the month following the date that the Individual Exchange receives the QHP selection.

P. (text unchanged)

 

14.35.14 Termination, Cancellation, and Rescission of Qualified Health Plan

Authority: Insurance Article, §31-106(c)(1)(iv), Annotated Code of Maryland

.04 Enrollee-Initiated Terminations — In General.

A.—E. (text unchanged)

F. Retroactive Terminations.

(1) An enrollee may retroactively terminate or cancel the enrollee's coverage or enrollment in a QHP when the enrollee:

(a) Demonstrates to the Exchange that the enrollee enrolled in Medicare Part A or B coverage with a retroactive effective date; and

(b) Requests retroactive termination of QHP coverage within 60 days of the enrollment.

(2) The effective date of the retroactive termination must be no earlier than the later of the day before the first day of coverage under Medicare Part A or B, and the day that is 6 months before the retroactive termination in QHP coverage is requested.

(3) A retroactive termination date as described in this section is not available for enrollments in stand-alone dental plans.

MICHELE EBERLE
Executive Director

 

Title 15
MARYLAND DEPARTMENT OF AGRICULTURE

Subtitle 20 SOIL AND WATER CONSERVATION

15.20.07 Agricultural Operation Nutrient Management Plan Requirements

Authority: Agriculture Article, §§8-801−8-806 and 8-8A-01 et seq., Annotated Code of Maryland

Notice of Proposed Action

[24-146-P-I]

The Maryland Department of Agriculture proposes to amend Regulation .02 under COMAR 15.20.07 Agricultural Operation Nutrient Management Plan Requirements. 

Statement of Purpose

The purpose of this action is to amend COMAR 15.20.07.02, which incorporates the Maryland Nutrient Management Manual, adding Supplement No. 10 to the manual.  Among other things, Supplement No. 10 includes: (1) New standards governing the number of applications per field per season consistent with good husbandry and sound agronomic practices; and (2) The "USDA-NRCS Field Office Technical Guide - Maryland/D.C. Area - Waste Storage Structure - 313".

Estimate of Economic Impact

The proposed action has no economic impact.

Economic Impact on Small Businesses

The proposed action has minimal or no economic impact on small businesses.

Impact on Individuals with Disabilities

The proposed action has no impact on individuals with disabilities.

Opportunity for Public Comment

Comments may be sent to Dwight Dotterer, Administrator, Nutrient Management Program, Maryland Department of Agriculture, 50 Harry S. Truman Parkway Annapolis, MD 21401, or call 410-841-5877, or email to dwight.dotterer@maryland.gov. Comments will be accepted through December 2, 2024. A public hearing has not been scheduled.

 

Editor’s Note on Incorporation by Reference

     Pursuant to State Government Article, §7-207, Annotated Code of Maryland, the Maryland Nutrient Management Manual, Supplement 10, has been declared a document generally available to the public and appropriate for incorporation by reference. For this reason, it will not be printed in the Maryland Register or the Code of Maryland Regulations (COMAR). Copies of this document are filed in special public depositories located throughout the State. A list of these depositories was published in 51:1 Md. R. 8 (January 12, 2024), and is available online at www.dsd.maryland.gov. The document may also be inspected at the office of the Division of State Documents, 16 Francis Street, Annapolis, Maryland 21401.

.02 Incorporation by Reference.

The performance and technical standards provided in this subtitle are found in the Department of Agriculture's Maryland Nutrient Management Manual (November 1999), Supplement No. 1 (September 2000), Supplement No. 2 (November 2001), Supplement No. 3 (September 2004), Supplement No. 4 (November 2005), Supplement No. 5 (November 2006), Supplement No. 6 (May 2009), Supplement No. 7 (May 2012), Supplement No. 8 (August 2016), [and] Supplement No. 9 (June 2022), and Supplement No. 10 (July 2024), which are incorporated by reference.

 

KEVIN ATTICKS
Secretary of Agriculture

 

Subtitle 20 SOIL AND WATER CONSERVATION

15.20.13 Food Processing Residuals Utilization Program

Authority: Agriculture Article, §§8-8A-01 et seq., Annotated Code of Maryland

Notice of Proposed Action

[24-139-P]

The Maryland Department of Agriculture proposes to adopt new Regulations .01—.28 under a new chapter, COMAR 15.20.13 Food Processing Residuals Utilization Program.  

Statement of Purpose

The purpose of this action is to  adopt new regulations implementing new legislation governing the utilization of food processing residuals in the State (e.g., the transportation of this material from a food processing plant to agricultural operations in the State, and the storage and land application of this material at these locations).  See Ch. 531, Acts of 2024. 

Estimate of Economic Impact

The proposed action has no economic impact.

Economic Impact on Small Businesses

The proposed action has minimal or no economic impact on small businesses.

Impact on Individuals with Disabilities

The proposed action has no impact on individuals with disabilities.

Opportunity for Public Comment

Comments may be sent to Dwight Dotterer, Administrator, Nutrient Management Program, Maryland Department of Agriculture, Maryland Department of Agriculture 50 Harry S. Truman Parkway Annapolis, MD 21401, or call 410-841-5877, or email to dwight.dotterer@maryland.gov. Comments will be accepted through December 16, 2024. A public hearing has not been scheduled.

.01 Purpose and Scope.

A. The purpose of this chapter is to establish requirements and control measures for the utilization of food processing residuals.

B. These regulations specifically apply to all persons engaged in the following utilization activities of food processing residuals, or any product containing this food processing residuals, which is utilized in the State of Maryland:

(1) Transportation, Regulations .12—14. of this chapter;

(2) Storage facility, Regulations .15—.19 of this chapter; and

(3) Agricultural land, Regulations .20—.23 of this chapter;

C. A person may not engage in food processing residuals utilization in a manner which will likely:

(1) Cause an undue risk to the environment or public health, safety, or welfare as may be determined by the Department;

(2) Create a nuisance; or

(3) Cause a discharge of constituents to waters of this State.

.02 Incorporation by Reference.

A. The performance and technical standards provided in this chapter pertaining to the land application and storage of food processing residuals are found in the Maryland Nutrient Management Manual, which is incorporated by reference in COMAR 15.20.07.02.

B. A person utilizing food processing residuals in conjunction with an agricultural operation shall follow the performance and technical standards set forth in the following chapters of the Maryland Nutrient Management Manual:

(1) For utilization pertaining to the land application of food processing residuals, Section I (“Nutrient Recommendations”), Subsection D (“Nutrient Application Requirements”):

(a) Chapter I: General Guidelines;

(b) Chapter II: Definitions;

(c) Chapter III: Setbacks for Nutrient Application;

(d) Chapter V: Temporary Field Stockpiling (Staging) for Stackable Organic Nutrient Sources Materials (Equal to or less than 75% Moisture Content); and

(e) Chapter VI: Food Processing Residuals; and

(2) For utilization pertaining to the storage of food processing residuals, Section III (“Animal Manure and Waste Management”), Subsection G (USDA-NRCS Field Office Technical Guide — Maryland/D.C. Area - Waste Storage Facility — 313):

(a) Chapter I: Conservation Practice Standard — Waste Storage Facility — Code 313 (2024);

(b) Chapter II: Operation & Maintenance Plan — Waste Storage Facility (313) (2021);

(c) Chapter III: Maryland Conservation Practice Construction Specification — Waste Storage Facility (2021); and

(d) Chapter IV: Statement of Work — Waste Storage Facility (313) — Maryland (2024).

.03 Definitions.

A. In this chapter, the following terms have the meanings indicated.

B. Food Processing Residuals.

(1) “Food processing residuals” or “FPRs” means an organic material that is:

(a) Generated by processing agricultural commodities for human or animal consumption and includes:

(i) Food residuals;

(ii) Food coproducts;

(iii) Food processing wastes;

(iv) Food processing sludges;

(v) Organic material that is mixed or otherwise commingled with food residuals, food coproducts, food processing wastes, food processing sludges; or

(vi) Any other incidental material whose characteristics are derived from processing agricultural products for human consumption or animal consumption; and

(b) Registered with the State Chemist as a soil conditioner.

(2) “Food processing residuals” does not include:

(a) Digester digestate that has not been mixed or commingled with food processing residuals;

(b) Animal and poultry manures that have not been mixed or commingled with food processing residuals;

(c) Biosolids (i.e., Class A or Class B sewage sludge), as defined by the Maryland Department of the Environment in COMAR 26.04.06.03B(7);

(d) Compost, that is, the product of composting in accordance with the standards established by the Secretary of Agriculture under Agriculture Article, §6-221, Annotated Code of Maryland, including food residuals:

(i) Diverted from final disposal in a refuse disposal system for composting under COMAR 26.04.13; or

(ii) Obtained from residential curbside or drop-off programs, including pre-consumer and post-consumer food scraps, transported to a composting facility in accordance with COMAR 26.04.11;

(e) Spent mushroom soil; or

(f) Water treatment plant residuals.

C. Other Terms Defined.

(1) Agricultural Land.

(a) “Agricultural land” means more than 10 acres of land used to produce food, feed, fiber, sod, animals, plants, trees, or plants in containers (pots), or for out-of-ground production.

(b) “Agricultural land” includes smaller, noncontiguous land parcels that total more than 10 acres.

(2) “Agricultural operation” means each physical site where a person engages in a business that:

(a) Grows, raises, keeps, pastures, or otherwise produces a farm product, including:

(i) Any agricultural, horticultural, vegetable, or fruit product of the soil; or

(ii) Livestock, poultry, eggs, dairy products, nuts, honey, and every product of the farm, a forest, or an orchard; and

(b) Has:

(i) A gross annual income of $2,500 or more; or

(ii) Eight or more animal units.

(3) “Animal unit” means 1,000 pounds of live animal weight.

(4) “Applicant” means:

(a) A person who owns or operates an agricultural operation; or

(b) A commercial broker or commercial hauler who has contracted with the owner or operator of an agricultural operation to have food processing residuals utilized at that operation.

(5) “Collection” means any action involved in the gathering or subsequent placement of food processing residuals, or any other product containing food processing residuals, into a vehicle, container, or any other vessel for transportation.

(6) “Commercial broker” means a person who:

(a) For commercial purposes, assumes temporary control of food processing residuals from an agricultural operation or a food processing plant and transports or arranges the transport of this material to an importing agricultural operation; and

(b) Is not working for or under the control of an agricultural operation.

(7) “Commercial hauler” means a person engaged in the business of hauling, transporting, moving, or land-applying food processing residuals as a contract agent for a farm operator, commercial broker, or food processing plant under the direction of the operator, broker, or processing plant.

(8)”Constituent” means any component of food processing residuals that is an organic, inorganic, or combination of organic and inorganic substances.

(9) “Container” means either an open or closed receptacle with a load capacity of 1 metric ton or less that includes a bucket, box, carton, vehicle or trailer.

(10) “County” means as defined in the Agriculture Article, §1-101(c), Annotated Code of Maryland.

(11) “Cover crop” means a cereal grain or cereal grain mix that:

(a) Is planted:

(i) Following the harvest of summer crops for the purpose of the seasonal protection of soil, the assimilation of residual nitrogen left from a previous crop, and the continued mineralization of nitrogen; and

(ii) In accordance with the “Maryland Winter Cover Crop Program Requirement” for seeding rate, planting dates, and planting methods as published on the Department’s website.; and

(b) Has germinated and attained at least 70 percent surface coverage on the field as measured by the standard line-transect method.

(12) “Department” means the Maryland Department of Agriculture.

(13) “Field ditch” means a channelized waterway that, as provided in the USDA-NRCS National Cooperative Soil Survey, is not within:

(a) Floodplain soil-mapping unit;

(b) Hydric soil that is mapped as a narrow, elongated feature in a fluvial or floodplain position; and

(c) Soil-mapping unit that has a slope class of “B” or steeper.

(14) “Food processing residuals generator” means a person who owns or operates a facility that processes food processing residuals to be utilized in this State.

(15) “Groundwater” means water below the land surface in a saturated zone.

(16) “Holding tank” means a watertight receptacle that has a capacity up to 20,000 gallons, which is used, or intended to be used, for the temporary storage of food processing residuals for land application.

(17) “Land application” means the placement of food processing residuals, or any other product containing food processing residuals on or mixed with or injected into land used to support an agricultural crop.

(18) “Nuisance” means unreasonable interference with the quality of life of the public because of the characteristics of noise, odor, vectors, solids, vapors, liquids, or gases that:

(a) Causes distress or potential health impacts to members of the public or residents or users of properties adjacent to a site where food processing residuals is being utilized or has been utilized; and

(b) Falls outside the protection afforded an agricultural operation under Courts and Judicial Proceedings Article,

§5-403, Annotated Code of Maryland.

(19) “Nutrient Management Plan” has the meaning stated in COMAR 15.20.08.

(20) “Pasture land” means land on which animals feed directly on forage and grain crops, such as legumes, grasses, or grain stubble.

(21) “Permittee” means a person who holds a Food Processing Residuals Utilization Permit.

(22) ”Person” means an individual, or any partnership, firm, association, public or private corporation, or any other entity.

(23) “State” means the State of Maryland unless otherwise specified.

(24) “Storage facility” means a waste storage facility that meets USDA-NRCS Waste Storage Facility No. 313 Conservation Practice Standards or an equivalent standard determined by a professional engineer for the containment of wastes generated by agricultural production or processing.

(25) “Surface water” means all waters of the State that are not groundwater.

(26) "Tidal wetland" has the meaning stated in COMAR 26.04.02.02.

(27) “Transportation” means the movement or conveyance of food processing residuals or any other product containing food processing residuals by road.

(28) “Treatment” means a process, which alters, modifies, or changes the biological, physical, or chemical characteristics of food processing residuals.

(29) “USDA-NRCS” means the United States Department of Agriculture-Natural Resources Conservation Service.

(30) “NRCS Waste Storage Facility No. 313 Conservation Practice Standard” means the technical standards for waste storage facilities set forth in USDA-NRCS Field Office Technical Guide which is incorporated by reference.

(31) “Utilize food processing residuals” means:

(a) Handling or storing food processing residuals;

(b) Using food processing residuals for land application; and

(c) Transporting food processing residuals to or from a generator of food processing residuals or to or from an agricultural operation.

.04 Right of Entry.

The person applying for a Food Processing Residuals Utilization Permit shall agree, as a condition for the issuance of the permit or any other authorization or approval issued by the Department, to allow the Secretary of the Department of Agriculture or the Secretary’s authorized representatives, at reasonable times and upon presentation of credentials, to:

A. Enter upon the premises or a location where any records are required to be maintained under the terms and conditions of the Food Processing Residuals Utilization Permit, authorization, or approval issued by the Department;

B. Have access to and copy any records required to be maintained under the terms and conditions of the Food Processing Residuals Utilization Permit, authorization, or approval issued by the Department;

C. Enter upon a food processing residuals utilization site and inspect any area covered by the permit including any field where food processing residuals have been land-applied or storage facility holding food processing residuals;

D. Sample any soils, vegetation, food processing residuals, or other materials on the site;

E. Perform any activities to determine compliance status with the terms and conditions of the Food Processing Residuals Utilization Permit, authorization, or approvals issued by the Department or the applicable regulations; and

F. Obtain any photographic documentation or evidence.

.05 Requirements for Utilzing Food Processing Residuals.

A person may not utilize food processing residuals in this State unless the material is:

A. Registered as a soil conditioner;

B. Analyzed by an accredited laboratory, using methods that are:

(1) Acceptable to the Department; and

(2) Part of the laboratory’s scope of accreditation: and

C. At a minimum, analyzed:

(1) For moisture, nutrients (total nitrogen, total phosphate, and total potash), heavy metal contaminants (arsenic, cadmium, chromium, copper, lead, molybdenum, nickel, selenium, and zinc), and polynuclear aromatic hydrocarbons (PAHs, as determined by Method 8270E Semivolatile Organic Compounds by Gas Chromatography/Mass Spectrometry); and

(2) As otherwise required by the Department.

.06 Sampling and Testing Requirements for Food Processing Residuals.

A. A person utilizing food processing residuals in this State shall submit to the Department:

(1) An acceptable methodology that shall be used to obtain a representative composite food processing residuals sample of the material; and

(2) On an annual basis, the results of laboratory analysis of the representative composite food processing residuals sample in accordance with the following requirements:

(a) All sample analyses shall be performed by an accredited laboratory, using methods that are acceptable to the Department and part of the laboratory’s scope of accreditation; and

(b) The analysis shall, at a minimum, test for moisture, nutrients (total nitrogen, total phosphate, and total potash), heavy metal contaminants (arsenic, cadmium, chromium, copper, lead, molybdenum, nickel, selenium, and zinc), and polynuclear aromatic hydrocarbons (PAHs, as determined by Method 8270E Semivolatile Organic Compounds by Gas Chromatography/Mass Spectrometry) and as otherwise required by the Department.

B. Unless otherwise agreed upon by persons utilizing food processing residuals in conjunction with an agricultural operation, the requirement set forth in §A of this regulation shall be performed by a commercial broker, commercial hauler, or other person who is permitted to transport the material to an agricultural operation. This person shall be identified in the permit application to utilize food processing residuals in conjunction with an agricultural operation.

C. The Department may:

(1) Require analyses for food processing residuals constituents other than those identified in §A(2) of this regulation to adequately assess the quality of food processing residuals;

(2) Require additional analyses to adequately assess the quality of food processing residuals;

(3) Approve a request to reduce the testing frequency for analyzing any of the constituents identified in §A(2) of this regulation if the Department determines that a sufficient number of food processing residuals samples have been analyzed to characterize food processing residuals quality on an annual as well as seasonal basis; and

(4) Reject an analysis for good cause.

D. The Department may consider the failure to submit the analysis required in §A of this regulation to be grounds for:

(1) Revocation or modification of any Food Processing Residuals Utilization Permit, authorization, or approval previously issued by the Department for the utilization of that generator’s food processing residuals; and

(2) Denial of any new, material alteration or extension, modification, or renewal application for a Food Processing Residuals Utilization Permit, authorization, or approval issued by the Department for the utilization of that generator’s food processing residuals.

.07 Record-Keeping and Reporting Requirements for Food Processing Residuals.

A. A person utilizing food processing residuals in the State shall submit to the Department the following information on a form provided by the Department:

(1) The date the food processing residuals leaves that food processing residuals generator’s plant;

(2) The amount of food processing residuals leaving that generator’s plant;

(3) The county and site where the food processing residuals are being utilized; and

(4) Other information required by the Department including information relating to the registration of the material with the Department.

B. The information required to be submitted under §A of this regulation shall be:

(1) Collected each year on a quarterly basis as follows:

(a) January 1 through March 31;

(b) April 1 through June 30;

(c) July 1 through September 30; and

(d) October 1 through December 31; and

(2) Submitted to the Department within 30 days from the close of each quarter.

C. Failure to submit the reports required under this regulation may constitute grounds for revocation or modification of any Food Processing Residuals Utilization Permit issued by the Department.

D. Unless otherwise agreed upon by persons utilizing food processing residuals in conjunction with an agricultural operation, the requirement set forth in §A of this regulation shall be performed by a commercial broker, commercial hauler, or other person who is permitted to transport the material to an agricultural operation. This person shall be identified in the permit application to utilize food processing residuals in conjunction with an agricultural operation.

.08 Food Processing Residuals Utilization Permits.

A. A person may not utilize food processing residuals, or any product containing this material, without first obtaining a Food Processing Residuals Utilization Permit from the Department.

B. A person who is engaged in the utilization of food processing residuals is subject to the following conditions:

(1) Food processing residuals may not be stored, staged, or land applied in a manner that will cause an undue risk to the environment or public health, safety, or welfare, or in a manner that causes or is likely to cause a discharge of constituents to the waters of the State;

(2) Food processing residuals may only be land applied on agricultural land in accordance with a nutrient management plan prepared by a certified and licensed nutrient management consultant in accordance with the requirements specified in COMAR 15.20.04 and in compliance with COMAR 15.20.07 and 15.20.08;

(3) Food processing residuals transported to a person’s agricultural operation may not be transported from that site to:

(a) Any other agricultural operation in the State that is not permitted by the Department to receive it; or

(b) A site in another State that is not permitted or otherwise authorized to receive food processing residuals.

C. In the event of an odor complaint pertaining to the utilization of food processing residuals, the Department shall investigate the complaint and, after investigating the complaint, notify the person who is utilizing food processing residuals what corrective measures, if any, shall be implemented, such as the temporary cessation of food processing residuals application, additional incorporation measures, or the application of odor control agents, such as lime, potassium permanganate, or other odor control agents.

D. A person may mix food processing residuals with other organic material if:

(1) The person demonstrates to the Department that the final utilization of the mixture will not cause an undue risk to the environment or public health, safety, or welfare as may be determined by the Department; and

(2) The person secures a new N/P/K analysis of the material before land application.

E. A person who mixes or otherwise comingles food processing residuals mixed with other organic materials shall manage this material in accordance with this chapter.

.09 Performance Bonds, Liability Insurance, or Other Form of Security.

A. A person applying for a Food Processing Residuals Utilization Permit shall file with the Department a performance bond on a form prescribed or approved by the Department, liability insurance, or other form of security. The performance bond, liability insurance, or other form of security shall be payable to the Department and the obligation of the performance bond, liability insurance, or other form of security shall be conditioned upon the compliance with the terms and conditions of the Food Processing Residuals Utilization Permit.

B. The amount of the performance bond, liability insurance, or other form of security shall be:

(1) For the initial permit to transport food processing residuals to and from an agricultural operation, $10,000;

(2) For the initial permit to apply food processing residuals on agricultural land, $30,000; and

(3) For the initial permit to store food processing residuals at a storage facility, $100,000.

C. The Department may allow a permittee obtaining several Food Processing Residuals Utilization Permits to utilize food processing residuals in conjunction with agricultural land to file one performance bond, liability insurance, or other form of security to satisfy the security requirements for more than one utilization site.

D. For each additional permit that the applicant seeks, the amount of the performance bond, liability insurance, or other form of security shall be 40 percent of the amount required in §B of this regulation up to a maximum amount of $200,000, as shown in the following examples:

(1) Example One: If a person is seeking two storage facility permits and two transportation permits, the bond amount is $154,000,which amount is the sum of the following two figures:

(a) $140,000 for the two storage permits, that being:$100,000 for the initial permit plus $40,000 (40% of $100,000) for the second permit); and

(b) $14,000 for the two transportation permits, that being:$10,000 for the initial permit plus $4,000 (40% of $10,000) for the second permit); and

(2) Example Two: If a person is seeking four storage permits and four transportation permits, the bond amount, while separately exceeding $200,000, will be capped at $200,000.

E. Liability under the performance bond, liability insurance, or other form of security shall remain in effect until all terms and conditions of the Food Processing Residuals Utilization Permit have been met. The Department may release the performance bond, liability insurance, or other form of security after the Department has determined that all terms and conditions of the Food Processing Residuals Utilization Permits covered by the performance bond, liability insurance, or other form of security have been complied with.

F. The performance bond, liability insurance, or other form of security shall be executed by the person applying for a Food Processing Residuals Utilization Permit and obtained from a corporate surety licensed to do business in this State. Instead of a performance bond, liability insurance, or other form of security executed by a corporate surety, the person may elect to deposit with the Department cash or negotiable bonds of the federal government or of this State or any other securities acceptable to the Department. The amount of the cash deposit or the market value of any securities shall be at least equal to the required sum of the performance bond, liability insurance, or other form of security. The Department shall receive and hold the cash or securities in trust, for the purposes for which the deposit is posted.

G. The obligation of the person applying for a Food Processing Residuals Utilization Permit and of any corporate surety under the performance bond, liability insurance, or other form of security shall become due and payable, and all or any part of any cash or securities due and payable, and all or any part of any cash or securities shall be applied to payment of the costs of complying with any requirement of the Food Processing Residuals Utilization Permit if the Department has:

(1) Notified the permittee and any corporate surety that the terms and conditions of the Food Processing Residuals Utilization Permit have not been complied with, and has specified in the notice the particular noncompliance with the Food Processing Residuals Utilization Permit terms or conditions;

(2) Given the permittee a reasonable opportunity to correct the deficiencies and to comply with all of the terms and conditions of the Food Processing Residuals Utilization Permit; and

(3) Determined that, at the end of a reasonable length of time, some or all of the noncompliance specified under §G(1) of this regulation remain uncorrected.

.10 Denial of Food Processing Residuals Utilization Permit Application.

A. The Department shall deny an application for a Food Processing Residuals Utilization Permit if the Department finds that:

(1) The applicant cannot utilize food processing residuals without causing an undue risk to the environment or the public health, safety, or welfare as may be determined by the Department;

(2) The applicant is violating:

(a) Agriculture Article, Title 8, Subtitles 8 and 8A, Annotated Code of Maryland; or

(b) Environment Article, Title 9, Subtitle 3, Part IV, Annotated Code of Maryland; or

(3) If the application is for storing food processing residuals at an agricultural operation, the applicant has not obtained any necessary approval or permits from the county to store this material at this site.

B. The Department may deny an application for a Food Processing Residuals Utilization Permit if the Department finds that:

(1) The applicant is not in compliance with the sampling and testing requirements specified in Regulation .06 of this chapter;

(2) The applicant is not in compliance with the record-keeping and reporting requirements specified in Regulation .07 of this chapter;

(3) The applicant has insufficient resources to meet the performance bond or other financial securities requirements of the Food Processing Residuals Utilization Permit;

(4) The applicant has failed to submit the applicable Food Processing Residuals Utilization Permit Application fee;

(5) The applicant has failed to submit information requested by the Department; or

(6) For any other good cause as determined by the Department including past violations of:

(a) Agriculture Article, Title 8, Subtitle 8, Annotated Code of Maryland, and regulations adopted thereunder;

(b) Agriculture Article, Title 8, Subtitle 8A, Annotated Code of Maryland, and regulations adopted thereunder; or

(c) Environment Article, Title 9, Subtitle 3, Part IV, Annotated Code of Maryland, and regulations adopted thereunder.

.11 Transportation.

A. The Department may issue a Food Processing Residuals Utilization Permit to transport food processing residuals if the equipment to be used, the operation plan, and the destination of food processing residuals meet the requirements established by the Department. A person transporting food processing residuals to an agricultural operation in conjunction with storing or land-applying this material at this site:

(1) Shall load and unload the material on the agricultural operation’s premises; and

(2) May not load and unload this material for these activities on a public road.

B. Liquid food processing residuals shall be transported in closed watertight vessels or containers.

C. Food processing residuals cake that is less than 75 percent moisture content may be transported in watertight containers, such as dump truck bodies or trailers that are sealed to prevent leakage or in closed body vehicles.

D. All State and federal commercial transportation laws must be followed.

.12 Transportation — Permit Application Requirements.

A. An applicant for a Food Processing Residuals Permit shall submit to the Department a permit application for each site in Maryland where food processing residuals is to be transported. The applicant shall submit to the Department two completed copies of the Food Processing Residuals Utilization Permit Application on a form provided by the Department. The applicant shall also submit a performance bond, liability insurance, or other form of security required under the provisions of Regulation .09 of this chapter. The application shall include the following completed information:

(1) A description of the source, type, and quantity of food processing residuals to be transported, including any previous treatment the food processing residuals has received, such as anaerobic digestion, aerobic digestion, lime stabilization, composting, or dewatering;

(2) A detailed operation plan that includes, when applicable:

(a) A spill or leak clean-up plan describing the procedures for managing and reporting a food processing residuals spill or leak;

(b) Procedures for record keeping and reporting of the food processing residuals to be transported;

(c) Types of equipment to be used for collection, management, washdown, and other operations; and

(d) Contingency or emergency plans to manage equipment breakdown, spills, and other emergency events;

(e) The destination and a detailed description of the final utilization of the food processing residuals at the destination; and

(f) Other information that may be requested by the Department.

B. Permit Application Fees. The applicant shall pay the Department a nonrefundable Food Processing Residuals Utilization Permit Application fee in accordance with the following schedule:

(1) For a new permit application, $50; and

(2) For a renewal permit application, $50.

.13 Transportation — Record-Keeping and Reporting Requirements for a Food Processing Residuals Utilization Permit.

A. The permittee shall generate a report containing the following information and maintain all documents used to generate the report for a period of 5 years:

(1) The source, type, and quantity of food processing residuals transported;

(2) The dates of transportation of food processing residuals;

(4) The destinations of food processing residuals (i.e., the address of the agricultural operation);

(5) Other related information regarding the transportation of food processing residuals as required by the applicable Food Processing Residuals Utilization Permit; and

(6) Other information that may be requested by the Department.

B. The permittee shall submit semi-annually to the Department two completed copies of the report required by §A of this regulation for each year the Food Processing Residuals Utilization Permit is in effect. The permittee shall submit to the Department the report on a form provided by the Department.

.14 Transportation — Modifications of a Food Processing Residuals Utilization Permit.

A. The Department may modify a Food Processing Residuals Utilization Permit for transporting food processing residuals to include a new condition as may be required by a new law or regulation, to clarify permit conditions, or for other good cause.

B. The Department may modify a Food Processing Residuals Utilization Permit for transporting food processing residuals upon request by the permittee if the following conditions are met:

(1) The permittee submits to the Department a Food Processing Residuals Utilization Permit modification application on a form provided by the Department, and all other required information and forms as determined by the Department, with the application including a description of the proposed modification and an explanation as to why the modification is needed; and

(2) The Department determines that the proposed modification is in compliance with the applicable requirements of this chapter and will not cause an undue risk to the environment or public health, safety, or welfare.

C. The following constitute modifications to a Food Processing Residuals Utilization Permit for transportation of food processing residuals:

(1) Modification to the types of food processing residuals to be transported;

(2) The permittee’s name change;

(3) Modification to the sources of food processing residuals to be transported; or

(4) Other modifications as determined by the Department.

D. If the Department considers a modification application complete and acceptable, the Department may modify the Food Processing Residuals Utilization Permit.

E. The Department may deny a modification application if the permittee is not in compliance with the applicable requirements of this chapter or any of the terms and conditions of the Food Processing Residuals Utilization Permit or for other good cause as determined by the Department.

.15 Storage Facility.

A. The Department may not issue a Food Processing Residuals Utilization Permit to use, install, materially alter, or materially extend a food processing residuals storage facility until:

(1) The storage facility meets all zoning and local land use requirements of the county where the storage facility is to be located;

(2) The person seeking the permit has obtained any necessary county approval or permits to store the material at the permitted site;

(3) The person has provided evidence showing that the structure meets:

(a) The NRCS Waste Storage Facility No. 313 Conservation Practice Standard; or

(b) An equivalent standard as determined by a professional engineer;

B. For an application to renew a permit for a waste storage facility, sufficient evidence showing that the requirements of §A(3) of this regulation continue to be met may include:

(1) A visual inspection of the storage facility by the Department; and

(2) Other evidence determined by the Department.

C. The Department may issue a Food Processing Residuals Utilization Permit to use, install, materially alter, or materially extend a food processing residuals storage facility if the applicant demonstrates that the following conditions and requirements will be met:

(1) The person seeking the permit has obtained any necessary county approval or permits to store the material at the permitted site;

(2) The person has provided evidence showing that the structure meets:

(a) The NRCS Waste Storage Facility No. 313 Conservation Practice Standard; or

(b) An equivalent standard as determined by a professional engineer.

(3) The storage facility is designed, constructed, and operated to safely store food processing residuals in a manner that will not cause an undue risk to the environment, public health, or welfare as may be determined by the Department;

(4) Public access to the storage facility shall be controlled;

(5) Any other conditions required by the Department to protect the public health and the environment.

D. For an application to renew a permit for a waste storage facility, sufficient evidence showing that the requirements of §C(2) and (4) of this regulation continue to be met may include:

(1) A visual inspection of the storage facility by the Department; and

(2) Other evidence determined by the Department.

.16 Storage Facility — Permit Application Requirements.

A. A person applying for a Food Processing Residuals Utilization Permit shall submit to the Department a separate permit application for each site where a food processing residuals storage facility is located or is to be installed, materially altered, or materially extended. A person shall submit to the Department two completed copies of the Food Processing Residuals Utilization Permit Application for a new Food Processing Residuals Utilization Permit, a modification to a Food Processing Residuals Utilization Permit, or a Food Processing Residuals Utilization Permit renewal on a form provided by the Department. A person shall also submit a performance bond, liability insurance, or other form of security required under the provisions of Regulation .09 of this chapter. The application shall include the following completed information:

(1) If the applicant is not the owner or operator of the agricultural operation where the storage facility is located or is to be installed, materially altered, or materially extended, the written consent of the owner or operator of the agricultural operation to utilize food processing residuals in conjunction with the operation;

(2) A current site plan designating the property boundary lines, the exact acreage of the site, existing and proposed storage facility structures, the location of any wells on the site and within 1/2 mile of the site, any residences or buildings on site and within 1/2 mile of the site, the proximity of the site to major roads in the area and any roads on the site, and surrounding land uses;

(3) Tax maps and liber and folio numbers for the parcels of land on which the storage facility exists or will be installed, materially altered, or materially extended and the names of the legal owners of the site;

(4) A description of the source, type, and quantity of food processing residuals to be stored;

(5) Engineering plans showing that the storage facility meets:

(a) NRCS Waste Storage Facility No. 313 Conservation Practice Standard;

(b) An equivalent standard determined by a registered professional engineer prepared, signed, and bearing the seal of the engineer;

(6) The specifications for any liners or soil sealants used;

(7) A detailed operation plan that includes, when applicable:

(a) Procedures for sampling, on-site record keeping, and reporting of the food processing residuals to be stored;

(b) Methods and procedures to prevent or control odors and other potential nuisance conditions at the site;

(c) Contingency or emergency plans to manage fires, equipment breakdown, spills, and other emergency events; and

(d) Methods and procedures for restricting public access to the site;

(8) Information on protection of water resources, including a description of the methods to be used for the protection of ground and surface waters of the State.

(9) For a new storage facility, an assessment of the potential environmental impact of the storage facility;

(10) For manufactured storage facilities, information showing that it meets:

(a) NRCS Waste Storage Facility No. 313 Conservation Practice Standard; or

(b) An equivalent standard determined by a registered professional engineer; and

(11) Other information that may be requested by the Department.

B. Permit Application Fees.

(1) The applicant shall pay the Department a nonrefundable Food Processing Residuals Utilization Permit Application fee in accordance with the following schedule:

(a) For a new permit application, $100; and

(b) For a renewal permit application, $100.

(2) For activities, which involve transportation or storage of food processing residuals in combination with any other activities listed in the Food Processing Residuals Utilization Permit Application, the Department will issue a single Food Processing Residuals Utilization Permit to include all activities. For combined activities that include the land application of food processing residuals, the application fees listed for transportation and storage of food processing residuals in Regulations .12 and .16 of this chapter shall be waived.

.17 Notice to County of a Permit Application.

A. Within 10 days after receiving a permit application that includes storing food processing residuals in conjunction with an agricultural operation, the Department shall mail a copy of the application to the chairman of the legislative body and any elected executive of the county where the food processing residuals is to be stored.

B. The Department may not issue a permit to operate a storage facility for food processing residuals in conjunction with an agricultural operation or a renewal permit unless the applicant has obtained any necessary county approval or permits to store the material at the site.

C. In its notice to the county under this regulation, the Department shall request that the county respond to the notice specified in §A of this regulation within 30 days from its receipt.

.18 Storage Facility — Record-Keeping and Reporting Requirements for a Food Processing Residuals Utilization Permit.

A. The permittee shall generate a report containing the following information and maintain all documents used to generate the report for a period of 5 years:

(1) The source, type, and quantity, including documentation of food processing residuals received and stored at the storage facility;

(2) The quantity, including documentation of food processing residuals transported from the storage facility;

(3) The dates of transportation of food processing residuals to and from the storage facility;

(4) The destination and utilization of food processing residuals transported from the storage facility;

(5) Other related information regarding the storage facility as required by the applicable Food Processing Residuals Utilization Permit; and

(6) Other information that may be requested by the Department.

B. The permittee shall submit to the Department two completed copies of the report required by §A of this regulation for each year the Food Processing Residuals Utilization Permit is in effect. The permittee shall submit to the Department the report on a form provided by the Department and in accordance with a schedule established by the Department.

.19 Storage Facility — Modifications, Material Alterations, or Extensions.

A. The Department may modify a Food Processing Residuals Utilization Permit to include a new condition as may be required by a new law or regulation, to clarify permit conditions, or for other good cause.

B. The Department may modify a Food Processing Residuals Utilization Permit or materially alter or extend a structure for storing food processing residuals upon request by the permittee if the following conditions are met:

(1) The permittee submits to the Department a completed Food Processing Residuals Utilization Permit application on a form provided by the Department, and all other required information and forms as determined by the Department, with the application including a description of the proposed modification, material alteration or extension, and an explanation as to why it is needed;

(2) The permittee shall pay the Department a nonrefundable fee in in the amount of $50; and

(3) The Department determines that the proposed modification, material alteration, or extension:

(a) Is in compliance with the applicable requirements of this chapter;

(b) Meets the NRCS Waste Storage Facility No. 313 Conservation Practice Standard or an equivalent standard determined by a professional engineer; and

(c) Will not cause an undue risk to the environment or public health, safety, or welfare; and

(4) The permittee has obtained any necessary county approval or permits for the proposed change.

D. The Department may deny an application to modify a Food Processing Residuals Utilization Permit or materially alter or extend a storage facility if the permittee is not in compliance with the applicable requirements of this chapter or any of the terms or conditions of the Food Processing Residuals Utilization Permit or for other good cause as determined by the Department.

.20 Agricultural Land.

A. The Department may issue a Food Processing Residuals Utilization Permit to apply food processing residuals on agricultural land if the following requirements are met:

(1) The food processing residuals have been registered by the Department as a soil conditioner and otherwise meets the requirements of the Department to be registered as a soil conditioner;

(2) A nutrient management plan is prepared for the site by a certified and licensed nutrient management consultant in accordance with the requirements of COMAR 15.20.04, and is in compliance with COMAR 15.20.07 and 15.20.08; and

(3) Expected crop yields submitted to the Department as part of the Food Processing Residuals Utilization Permit Application are determined to be in accordance with the requirements in COMAR 15.20.08.

B. The Department may restrict or apply special provisions for the land application of food processing residuals on fields that are adjacent to or bordering homes, schools, places of worship, hospitals, legal boundaries of incorporated municipalities, or other locations of concern as determined by the Department.

C. Food processing residuals may be applied on agricultural land only if the following requirements are met:

(1) The requirements of §A(1)—(3) of this regulation;

(2) Requirements concerning minimum buffer distances, as follows:

(a) Food processing residuals may not be applied closer than the minimum buffer distance to a feature of concern identified in Table 1 of §C(2)(b) of this regulation, unless the Department establishes an alternate minimum buffer distance in accordance with §C(2)(d) of this regulation.

(b) Table 1 — Minimum Buffer Distances

 

Feature of Concern

 

Minimum Buffer Distance

Injection of FPRs or Surface Application of FPRs with Incorporation

 

 

Bedrock outcrops

25 feet

Field ditches

10 feet

Incorporated municipality boundary lines

400 feet

Occupied off-site dwelling

100 feet

Occupied on-site dwelling

100 feet

Property lines

25 feet

Public roads

15 feet from the edge of the road

Surface waters unless Equivalent Best Management Practices are installed

100 feet

Wells, nonpotable

25 feet

Wells, potable

100 feet

(c) For agricultural land located within a critical area as identified by the Critical Area Commission for the Chesapeake and Atlantic Coastal Bays, food processing residuals:

(i) May not be land applied within 100 feet of the Mean High-Water Line of tidal waters or the landward edge of tidal wetlands; and

(ii) May only be subsurface injected or incorporated between 101 and 1,000 feet of the Mean High-Water Line of tidal waters or the landward edge of tidal wetlands;

(d) Except as otherwise prohibited by law, the Department may modify the minimum buffer distances established in §C(2)(b) of this regulation as follows:

(i) The Department may increase or decrease the minimum buffer distance associated with any feature of concern identified in Table 1 of §C(2)(b) of this regulation;

(ii) The Department may establish minimum buffer distances for features of concern not identified in Table 1 of §C(2)(b) of this regulation, such as particular categories of land use; and

(iii) In modifying the minimum buffer distances, the Department may consider the food processing residuals application method, the application rate, adjacent land use, land slopes, vegetated filter strip, the type and condition of any surrounding bodies of water, and any other factor considered relevant by the Department;

(3) Requirements concerning slope, as follows:

(a) Unless modified by the Department in accordance with §C(4)(b) of this regulation, the following requirements concerning slope shall be met:

(i) Food processing residuals may not be applied on a slope that is greater than 15 percent;

(ii) Liquid food processing residuals which are surface applied on a slope that is greater than 6 percent shall be applied in accordance with COMAR 15.20.08; and

(iii) Food processing residuals may be subsurface injected on a slope that is up to 15 percent; and

(b) The limits of §C(3)(a) of this regulation may be modified by the Department, but only if the Department determines that sediment and erosion controls or other features at a site, or both, are sufficient to protect the public health and the environment;

(4) Food processing residuals may not be applied when:

(a) The soil is saturated;

(b) The ground is flooded, ponded, frozen, or covered with snow; or

(c) Weather conditions prevent compliance with the requirement to incorporate the food processing residuals into the soil;

(5) The timing of food processing residuals land application shall be in accordance with the requirements of COMAR 15.20.08;

(6) Food processing residuals shall be applied in a manner approved by the Department using conventional agricultural equipment, such as manure spreaders, spray equipment, or other applicators, or by commercial equipment specifically designed for food processing residuals application on agricultural land, with all conventional agricultural and commercial equipment used for agricultural land application required to be calibrated in accordance with the manufacturer’s recommendations before land application of the food processing residuals begins;

(7) Food crops harvested off food processing residuals land application sites shall meet applicable produce safety requirements; and

(8) Trucks, tractors, and equipment shall be cleaned or otherwise addressed on the site to prevent drag-out of soil or food processing residuals onto public roads.

.21 Agricultural Land — Permit Application Requirements.

A. A person applying for a Food Processing Residuals Permit shall submit to the Department a separate permit application for each agricultural operation where food processing residuals is to be applied on agricultural land (e.g., the USDA Farm Service Agency farm and tract number for each operation).

B. The applicant shall submit to the Department two completed copies of the Food Processing Residuals Utilization Permit Application on a form provided by the Department. A person shall also submit a performance bond, liability insurance, or other form of security required under the provisions of Regulation .10 of this chapter.

C. The Food Processing Residuals Utilization Permit Application to apply food processing residuals on agricultural land shall include two completed copies of the following forms provided by the Department and signed and dated not more than 6 months before the receipt of the Food Processing Residuals Utilization Permit Application by the Department:

(1) If the applicant is not the owner of the site where food processing residuals is to be applied, the written consent of the owner (which consent, if the owner agrees, may be valid for a 2-year period);

(2) A site information form completed and signed by the applicant and the farmer or operator of the site where food processing residuals is to be applied; and

D. The Food Processing Residuals Utilization Permit Application to apply food processing residuals on agricultural land shall include two completed copies of the following information:

(1) The sources and types of food processing residuals to be applied, including any treatment the food processing residuals has received, such as anaerobic digestion, aerobic digestion, dissolved air flotation, composting, or dewatering;

(3) A current site plan that includes:

(a) The location of property boundary lines and field boundaries;

(b) The exact acreage where food processing residual is to be applied;

(c) The location of all buffer distances;

(d) The location of any residences or buildings on site or within 1/2 mile of the site;

(e) An inventory of any domestic, commercial, or municipal wells on site and within 1/2 mile of the property boundary lines, including water level for the wells if available;

(f) The location of any on-site stream, spring, seep, pond, drainage ditch or other body of water;

(g) The location of any on-site area with a slope of 15 percent or greater;

(h) The location of any on-site bedrock outcropping;

(i) The location of any on-site depression area;

(j) The surrounding land uses;

(k) Other features as determined by the Department; and

(l) A legend identifying the key features on the site plan;

(4) If required by the Department, the results of a laboratory analysis of a representative soil sample, which was obtained from each field not more than 6 months before the receipt of the Food Processing Residuals Utilization Permit Application by the Department subject to the following:

(a) All soil samples shall be collected from within the field that would receive food processing residuals in accordance with the requirements in COMAR 15.20.08;

(b) Soil samples may not be collected from buffer distances, restricted areas, or other areas that are not subject to the land application of food processing residuals;

(c) The analysis of the sample was performed by an independent laboratory or other laboratory acceptable to the Department, using standards, procedures, and methods that are acceptable to the Department;

(d) If requested by the Department, the results shall be accompanied by a description of the method or methods of analysis; and

(e) The analytical results include, at a minimum:

(i) pH, cation exchange capacity, and soil texture;

(ii) If metal analysis has not been previously performed on the field, total cadmium, total copper, total lead, total nickel, total zinc, and total phosphorus; and

(iii) Any other constituents in the soil that the Department determines necessary to adequately assess the potential impact of the project on public health, safety, and the environment;

(5) A tax map showing the property line, owner, acreage, and liber and folio numbers;

(6) A detailed operation plan that includes, when applicable:

(a) Procedures for sampling, record keeping, and reporting of the food processing residuals to be utilized;

(b) Identification of equipment to be used for land-application of food processing residuals;

(c) Methods and procedures to prevent or control odors and other potential nuisance conditions at the site; and

(d) Contingency or emergency plans to manage equipment breakdown, spills, and other emergency events; and

(7) A list of type of crops or cover species to be grown, which indicate the crop yields as specified in the nutrient management plan;

(8) A nutrient management plan that:

(a) Has been prepared by a certified and licensed nutrient management consultant in accordance with the requirements of COMAR 15.20.04; and

(b) Is in compliance with COMAR 15.20.07 and 15.20.08; and

(9) Other information that may be requested by the Department.

E. The Department may reject an analysis of food processing or a soil sample submitted in accordance with §D(4) of this regulation and require retesting and resubmittal if the Department determines that the method of analysis is inaccurate, or for any other good cause.

F. Permit Application Fees.

(1) The applicant shall pay the Department a nonrefundable Food Processing Residuals Utilization Permit Application fee in accordance with the following schedule:

(a) For a new permit application, $175; and

(b) For a renewal permit application, $175.

G. For activities, which involve transportation or storage of food processing residuals in combination with any other activities listed in the Food Processing Residuals Utilization Permit Application, the Department will issue a single Food Processing Residuals Utilization Permit to include all activities. For combined activities that include the land application of food processing residuals, the application fees listed for transportation and storage of food processing residuals in Regulations .12 and .16 of this chapter shall be waived.

H. Holding Tanks. A person permitted to utilize food processing residuals for land application in conjunction with an agricultural operation may use a holding tank for this activity and under this chapter is not required to obtain a permit from the Department to use the holding tank.

.22 Agricultural Land — Record-Keeping and Reporting Requirements for a Food Processing Residuals Utilization Permit.

A. The permittee shall generate a report containing the following information and maintain all documents used to generate the report for a period of 5 years:

(1) The source, type, and quantity, including documentation of food processing residuals received and applied on the agricultural land;

(2) The dates of land application of food processing residuals;

(3) The number and size of the fields where food processing residuals was applied on agricultural land;

(4) Cumulative and annual constituent loading rates including plant-available nitrogen, P2O5, and K2O;

(5) Other related information regarding the land application of food processing residuals as required by the applicable Food Processing Residuals Utilization Permit; and

(6) Other information that may be requested by the Department

B. The permittee shall submit to the Department one completed copies of the report required by §A of this regulation for each year the Food Processing Residuals Utilization Permit is in effect. The permittee shall submit to the Department the report on a form provided by the Department and in accordance with a schedule established by the Department.

C. Within 60 days of land application of food processing residuals, the permittee shall provide the farmer or operator and the legal owner of the site where food processing residuals was applied with a copy of the report required by §B of this regulation.

.23 Agricultural Land — Modifications of a Food Processing Residuals Utilization Permit.

A. The Department may modify a Food Processing Residuals Utilization Permit for land-application of food processing residuals to include a new condition as may be required by a new law or regulation, to clarify permit conditions, or for other good cause.

B. The Department may modify a Food Processing Residuals Utilization Permit upon request by the permittee if the following conditions are met:

(1) The permittee submits to the Department two completed copies of the Food Processing Residuals Utilization Permit modification application on a form provided by the Department, and all other required information and forms as determined by the Department, with the application including a description of the proposed modification and an explanation as to why the modification is needed; and

(2)The Department determines that the proposed modification is in compliance with the applicable requirements of this chapter and will not cause an undue risk to the environment or public health, safety, or welfare.

C. The following constitutes modifications to a Food Processing Residuals Utilization Permit for agricultural land application of food processing residuals:

(1) Modification to the site’s nutrient management plan;

(2) Addition of a crop or cover crop;

(3) Adjustment of approved maximum nitrogen per acre requirements for a different crop or cover crop;

(4) The permittee’s name change;

(5) Addition of a new food processing residuals source or type to be applied;

(6) Increase in the size of the permitted acreage; or

(7) Other modifications as determined by the Department.

D. If the Department considers a modification application complete and acceptable, the Department may modify the Food Processing Residuals Utilization Permit.

E. The Department may deny a modification application if the permittee is not in compliance with the applicable requirements of this chapter or any of the terms or conditions of the Food Processing Residuals Utilization Permit or for other good cause as determined by the Department.

.24 Food Processing Residuals Utilization Permit Term and Renewal.

A. As a requirement for maintaining a Food Processing Residuals Utilization Permit, the permittee shall:

(1) Comply with the applicable State laws and regulations and with the terms and conditions of the Food Processing Residuals Utilization Permit;

(2) Maintain a performance bond, liability insurance, or other form of security as required in Regulation .10 of this chapter;

(3) Allow authorized State to conduct inspections as required in Regulation .04 of this chapter; and

(4) Provide any other information that may be requested by the Department.

B. The Department may issue a Food Processing Residuals Utilization Permit to utilize food processing residuals for a term not to exceed 1 year.

C. Except for Food Processing Residuals Utilization Permits for a storing food processing residuals, the Department may renew a Food Processing Residuals Utilization Permit if:

(1) The permittee is in compliance with the applicable State laws and regulations and all of the terms and conditions of the Food Processing Residuals Utilization Permit;

(2) The permittee is in compliance with any applicable discharge permit under Environment Article, §9-301, Annotated Code of Maryland;

(3) The permittee submits to the Department 6 calendar weeks before the expiration date of the current Food Processing Residuals Utilization Permit or in accordance with the time specified in the current Food Processing Residuals Utilization Permit a completed Food Processing Residuals Utilization Permit renewal application on a form provided by the Department, and all other required information and forms as determined by the Department; and

(4) The permittee pays the Department the required renewal application fee.

D. For Food Processing Residuals Utilization Permits for storing food processing residuals, the Department may renew a Food Processing Residuals Utilization Permit if:

(1) The permittee is in compliance with the applicable State laws and regulations and all of the terms and conditions of the Food Processing Residuals Utilization Permit;

(2) The permittee meets the requirements specified in §C(1)—(4) of this regulation;

(3) The permittee is in compliance with any county approval or permit to store food processing residuals at the agricultural operation; and

(4) The permittee pays the Department the required renewal application fee.

E. If the Department considers a renewal application complete and acceptable, the Department may renew the Food Processing Residuals Utilization Permit.

F. The Department may deny a renewal application to transport or land apply food processing residuals if the permittee is not in compliance with the applicable State laws and regulations or any of the terms or conditions of the Food Processing Residuals Utilization Permit that is subject to renewal.

G. The Department may deny a renewal application to store food processing residuals if the permittee is not in compliance with the applicable State laws and regulations, any of the terms or conditions of the Food Processing Residuals Utilization Permit, or any county approval or permit for storing this material that is subject to renewal.

.25 Transfer of a Food Processing Residuals Utilization Permit or Ownership.

A. Thirty days before any change in control or ownership of the permitted property, site, or facility, the permittee shall:

(1) Provide the succeeding legal owners of the permitted property, site, or facility by certified mail, with a copy of:

(a) The “Owner’s Consent Form” signed by the current owners of the permitted property, site, or facility; and

(b) A copy of the Food Processing Residuals Utilization Permit for the permitted site or facility; and

(2) Notify the succeeding legal owners of any outstanding permit noncompliance, and, at the same time, submit to the Department a copy of this notification.

B. Food Processing Residuals Utilization Permits for storing, transporting, or land-applying food processing residuals are not transferable and are only valid for the permittee named in the Food Processing Residuals Utilization Permit. In order for a different person to become the permittee for a Food Processing Residuals Utilization Permit for these food processing residuals utilization activities, the new person shall first obtain a new Food Processing Residuals Utilization Permit from the Department.

.26 Suspension, Revocation, or Modification by the Department.

A. After written notification and an opportunity to request a hearing by the Department, the Department may suspend, revoke, or modify a Food Processing Residuals Utilization Permit if the Department finds that:

(1) False or inaccurate information was contained in:

(a) The Food Processing Residuals Utilization Permit Application;

(b) The information and forms required as part of the Food Processing Residuals Utilization Permit Application; or

(c) Information required as part of the Food Processing Residuals Utilization Permit;

(2) As part of a regulated activity by a permittee, there is or has been a violation of:

(a) Agriculture Article, Title 8, Subtitle 8, Annotated Code of Maryland, or regulations adopted under this subtitle;

(b) Agriculture Article, Title 8, Subtitle 8A, Annotated Code of Maryland, or regulations adopted under this subtitle;

(c) Environment Article, Title 9, Subtitle 3, Part IV, Annotated Code of Maryland, or regulations adopted under this subtitle;

(d) Applicable requirements of this chapter; or

(e) Any conditions in the Food Processing Residuals Utilization Permit;

(3) Substantial deviation from approved plans, specifications, or requirements has occurred as determined by the Department;

(4) The Department, an authorized representative of the Department, has been refused entry to the premises for the purpose of inspecting or sampling to ensure compliance with the terms and conditions of the Food Processing Residuals Utilization Permit;

(5) Conditions exist which are causing or may cause an undue risk to the environment or public health, safety, or welfare as may be determined by the Department;

(6) The permittee has been negligent or incompetent in the utilization of food processing residuals; or

(7) Any other good cause exists for suspending, revoking, or modifying the Food Processing Residuals Utilization Permit.

B. Immediate Suspension or Revocation.

(1) Notwithstanding other provisions of this chapter or the terms and conditions of the Food Processing Residuals Utilization Permit, the Department may immediately suspend or revoke a Food Processing Residuals Utilization Permit if the Department determines there is an immediate and substantial threat to the environment, public health, safety, or welfare.

(2) The Department shall deliver written notice of an immediate suspension or revocation of a Food Processing Residuals Utilization Permit to the permittee which does the following:

(a) Informs the permittee of the emergency suspension or revocation;

(b) Cites the statute, regulation, or condition of the permit with which the permittee has failed to comply that is the basis for the emergency suspension or revocation;

(c) Specifies the corrective action to be taken by the permittee and the time period within which the action shall be taken; and

(d) Notifies the permittee of the right to request a hearing.

(3) The filing of a hearing request does not stay the revocation or suspension.

C. An opportunity shall be provided for a hearing if the permittee files a written request with the Department within 10 calendar days of receipt of the notice of suspension, revocation, or modification of a Food Processing Residuals Utilization Permit.

D. A hearing provided for in this regulation shall be conducted by the Department at a designated time and place in accordance with the provisions of State Government Article, Title 10, Subtitle 2, Annotated Code of Maryland.

E. Actions taken in accordance with this regulation do not preclude the Department from taking other administrative, civil, or criminal action for violations of State law, regulations, or terms or conditions of a Food Processing Residuals Utilization Permit.

F. If the Department suspends or revokes a Food Processing Residuals Utilization Permit, the Department shall send notice of the suspension or revocation to the county in which the Food Processing Residuals Utilization Permit is issued by the Department.

.27 Administrative Penalties.

A. If the Department determines that a person has violated any provision of Agriculture Article, Title 8, Subtitle 8A, Annotated Code of Maryland, any regulation adopted thereunder, or any condition the permit issued to the person, the Department may impose a civil penalty up to $5,000 per day, not to exceed $50,000 in total penalties for that violation.

B. In assessing a civil penalty imposed under §A, of this regulation, the Department shall give consideration to:

(1) The willfulness of the violation;

(2) The extent to which the existence of the violation was known to the violator but uncorrected by the violator;

(3) The extent to which the violator exercised reasonable care;

(4) The extent the violation resulted in actual harm to the environment or to human health or safety;

(5) The nature and degree of injury to or interference with general welfare, health, and property;

(6) The extent to which the current violation is part of a recurrent pattern of the same or similar type of violation committed by the violator; and

(7) The extent to which the violation creates the potential for harm to the environment or to human health or safety.

C. Unless a stay has been granted, a person against whom a civil penalty has been imposed under this regulation shall pay the amount of the penalty promptly to the Department.

.28 Tonnage Report and Tonnage Fee.

A. A person utilizing food processing residuals at an agricultural operation in the State shall:

(1) Mail to the Department, on a quarterly basis as provided in §B of this regulation, a statement showing the following information for each month within the quarter:

(a) The total tons of food processing residuals;

(b) The counties to which it was distributed; and

(c) The form in which the material was shipped, such as bulk or liquid;

(2) Furnish the Department with a semiannual written statement of the tonnage of food processing residuals transported to the agricultural operation showing every delivery of the material transported to the agricultural operation covering the following applicable 6-month time periods:

(a) January 1 through June 30 of each year (this statement is due within 31 days after the end of this semiannual period); and

(b) July 1 through December 31 of each year (this statement is due within 31 days after the end of this semiannual period); and

(3) For these same 6-month time periods, pay a tonnage fee of $4 per wet ton to the Department (this payment is due within 31 days after the end of each semiannual period) that, after collection, is to be paid to the Comptroller for distribution into the Food Processing Residuals Administration Fund. B. For each of the quarterly time periods listed below, the person shall mail to the Department the information specified in §A of this regulation within 30 days from the close of the applicable time period:

(a) January 1 through March 31;

(b) April 1 through June 30;

(c) July 1 through September 30; and

(d) October 1 through December 31.

C. If more than one person is involved in the transportation, storage, and land application of food processing residuals utilized at an agricultural operation, unless the persons otherwise agree, the person responsible for reporting the tonnage of material transported to the agricultural operation and paying the tonnage fee shall be the commercial broker, commercial hauler, or other person permitted to transport the material to an agricultural operation. Otherwise, this responsibility shall be performed by the person storing or land-applying this material at this site. The person responsible for reporting the tonnage of food processing residuals to the agricultural operation and paying the tonnage fee and shall be identified in the application or applications to utilize (e.g., transport, store, or land-apply) this material at the agricultural operation.

D. If the tonnage report is not filed and the tonnage fee is not paid within 31 days after the end of the semiannual period, a collection fee shall be assessed against the permittee. The amount of fees due constitute a debt and may become the basis of a judgment against this person.

E. A person who utilizes food processing residuals in the State shall keep records necessary or required by the Secretary to indicate accurately the tonnage of this material utilized in the State. The Secretary has the right to examine the records to verify any statement of tonnage.

KEVIN ATTICKS

Secretary of Agriculture

 

Title 27
CRITICAL AREA COMMISSION FOR THE CHESAPEAKE AND ATLANTIC COASTAL BAYS

Notice of Proposed Action
[24-107-P]

The Critical Area Commission for the Chesapeake and Atlantic Coastal Bays proposes to:

 (1) Amend Regulation .01 under COMAR 27.01.01 General Provisions;

 (2) Amend Regulations .01, .01-1, .02, .03, .04, .05, .06, .06-1, .06-2, .06-3, .07, and .08 and adopt new Regulations .02-1 and .02-2 under COMAR 27.01.02 Development in the Critical Area;

 (3) Amend Regulations .02—.04 under COMAR 27.01.03 Water-Dependent Facilities and Activities;

 (4) Amend Regulations .01 and .02 under COMAR 27.01.05 Forest and Woodland Protection;

 (5) Amend Regulation .02 and .03 under COMAR 27.01.06 Agriculture;

 (6) Amend Regulations .02 and .03 under COMAR 27.01.07 Surface Mining in the Critical Area;

 (7) Amend Regulation .03 under COMAR 27.01.08 Natural Parks;

 (8) Amend Regulations .01—.01-3, .01-6, .01-7, and .02—.05 under COMAR 27.01.09 Habitat Protection Areas in the Critical Area;

 (9) Amend Regulation .01 and adopt new Regulation .02 under COMAR 27.01.10 Directives for Local Program Development;

 (10) Amend Regulations .04—.06 under COMAR 27.01.11 Directives for Updating Critical Area Maps;

 (11) Amend Regulations .06 and .07 under COMAR 27.01.12 Variances;

 (12) Amend Regulations .03, .05, and .06 under COMAR 27.01.14 Renewable Energy Generating Systems;

 (13) Amend Regulation .01 under COMAR 27.02.01 General Provisions;

 (14) Amend Regulations .01 and .02 under COMAR 27.02.02 State and Local Agency Actions Resulting in Minor Development on Private Lands or Lands Owned by Local Jurisdictions;

 (15) Adopt new Regulation .01 and amend and recodify existing Regulation .01 to be Regulation .02 under COMAR 27.02.03 General Approval of State and Local Agency Programs Which Result in Minor Development on Private Lands or Lands Owned by Local Jurisdictions;

 (16) Amend Regulations .01 and .02 under COMAR 27.02.04 State or Local Agency Actions Resulting in Major Development on Private Lands or Lands Owned by Local Jurisdictions;

 (17) Amend Regulations .01, .03—.03-2, .04-1, .04-2, .06, .07, .08-2, .08-3, .09—.13, and .15—.15-3 under COMAR 27.02.05 State Agency Actions Resulting in Development on State-Owned Lands;

 (18) Amend Regulation .01 under COMAR 27.02.06 Conditional Approval of State or Local Agency Programs in the Critical Area;

 (19) Amend Regulations .01—.04 under COMAR 27.02.07 Commission Review, Decision Process, and Time Frames;

 (20) Amend Regulations .01 and .02 under COMAR 27.02.08 Appeals;

 (21) Amend Regulations .01—.04 and repeal existing Regulation .05 under COMAR 27.03.01 Notification of Project Applications;

 

This action was considered and approved by the Critical Area Commission for the Chesapeake and Atlantic Coastal Bays at an open public meeting on May 1, 2024, notice of which was given, pursuant to General Provisions Article, §3-302, Annotated Code of Maryland.

Statement of Purpose

The purpose of this action is to  repeal outdated provisions and definitions that are not used in the text, perform stylistic changes (bring text under current Division of State Documents Standards), add new definitions for clarity, and make corrective changes to reinforce existing provisions or to remove duplicative language.

Estimate of Economic Impact

The proposed action has no economic impact.

Economic Impact on Small Businesses

The proposed action has minimal or no economic impact on small businesses.

Impact on Individuals with Disabilities

The proposed action has no impact on individuals with disabilities.

Opportunity for Public Comment

Comments may be sent to Lisa Hoerger, Regulations Coordinator, Critical Area Commission, 1804 West Street, Suite 100, or call 410-260-3478, or email to lisa.hoerger@maryland.gov. Comments will be accepted through December 2, 2024. A public hearing has not been scheduled.

 

Subtitle 01 CRITERIA FOR LOCAL CRITICAL AREA PROGRAM DEVELOPMENT

27.01.01 General Provisions

Authority: Natural Resources Article, §§8-1806, 8-1808(c), 8-1808.4(a), 8-1808.5(a), and 8-1811, Annotated Code of Maryland

.01 Definitions.

A. (text unchanged).

B. Terms Defined.

(1) "Afforestation" [means the establishment of a tree crop on an area from which it has always or very long been absent, or the planting of open areas which are not presently in forest cover] has the meaning stated in Natural Resources Article, §5-1601(b), Annotated Code of Maryland.

(2)—(3) (text unchanged)

(4) Anadromous Fish.

(a) "Anadromous fish" means a species of fish that [travel] spawns in freshwater by traveling upstream [(from their] from its primary ocean habitat [in the ocean) to freshwaters in order to spawn].

(b) “Anadromous fish” means rockfish, yellow perch, white perch, shad, and river herring.

(5) (text unchanged)

(6) ["Barren land" means unmanaged land having sparse vegetation.] Repealed.

(7) (text unchanged)

(8) Buffer.

(a) "Buffer" means an area that:

(i) Based on conditions present at the time of development, is [immediately] landward from the mean high water line of tidal waters, [the edge of each bank of a tributary stream, or] from the landward boundary of a tidal wetland, or from the edge of each bank of a tributary stream; and

(ii) (text unchanged)

(b) (text unchanged)

(8-1) “Chair” means the Chair of the Critical Area Commission for the Chesapeake and Atlantic Coastal Bays.

(9) "Clearcutting" means the removal of the entire stand of trees in one cutting [with tree reproduction obtained] of trees reproduced by natural seeding from adjacent stands or from trees that were cut, from advanced regeneration or stump sprouts, or from human activity in the planting of seeds or seedlings [by man].

(9-1) Clearing.

(a) “Clearing” means an activity that removes trees and vegetative cover from the land.

(b) “Clearing” may include removing trees and leaving stumps, only if leaving stumps is authorized under an approved timber harvest plan.

(10)(14) (text unchanged)

(15) Comprehensive Plan.

(a) "Comprehensive [or master] plan" means a compilation of policy statements, goals, standards, maps, and pertinent data relative to the past, present, and future trends of the local jurisdiction including[, but not limited to,] its population, housing, economics, social patterns, land use, water resources and their use, transportation facilities, and public facilities, that is prepared by or for the planning board, agency, or office.

(b) “Comprehensive plan” includes a general plan and a master plan.

(16)—(21-1) (text unchanged)

(21-2) Disturbance.

(a) (text unchanged)

(b) "Disturbance" includes any amount of cutting, clearing, grading, or construction activity.

(c) (text unchanged)

(22) (text unchanged)

(23) ["Ecosystem" means a more or less self-contained biological community together with the physical environment in which the community's organisms occur.

(23-1)] (text unchanged)

[(23-2)] (23-1) (text unchanged)

(24) ["Excess stormwater runoff" means all increases in stormwater resulting from:

(a) An increase in the lot coverage on the site, including all additions to buildings, roads, and parking lots;

(b) Changes in permeability caused by compaction during construction or modifications in contours, including the filling or drainage of small depression areas;

(c) Alteration of drainageways or regrading of slopes;

(d) Destruction of forest; or

(e) Installation of collection systems to intercept street flows or to replace swales or other drainageways.

(24-1)] (text unchanged)

(25)(27) (text unchanged)

(28) "Forest management" means the protection, manipulation, and utilization of the forest to provide multiple benefits, [such as] including timber harvesting, water transpiration, and wildlife [habitat, etc] and plant habitats.

(29) ["Forest practice" means the alteration of the forest either through tree removal or replacement in order to improve the timber, wildlife, recreational, aesthetic, or water quality values.

(29-1)] Habitat Protection Area.

(a) (text unchanged)

(b) "Habitat protection area" includes:

(i) The [Buffer] buffer, as [described in COMAR 27.01.01.01B(8)] defined in this regulation and set forth in COMAR 27.01.09;

(ii) A nontidal wetland, as defined in [COMAR 26.24.01.02B] Environment Article, §5-901, Annotated Code of Maryland, and as applied by the Department of the Environment;

(iii) A habitat of a threatened species, as defined in this regulation and set forth in COMAR [27.01.09.03A] 27.01.09.03;

(iv) A habitat of an endangered species, as defined in this regulation and set forth in COMAR [27.01.09.03A] 27.01.09.03;

(v) A habitat of a species in need of conservation, as defined in this regulation and set forth in COMAR [27.01.09.03A] 27.01.09.03;

(vi) A plant habitat, as defined in this regulation and set forth in COMAR [27.01.09.04A] 27.01.09.04;

(vii) A wildlife habitat, as defined in this regulation and set forth in COMAR [27.01.09.04A] 27.01.09.04; and

(viii) Anadromous fish propagation waters, as defined and set forth in COMAR [27.01.09.05A] 27.01.09.05.

(30) "Highly erodible [soils] soil" means [those soils with a] a soil with:

(a) A slope greater than 15 percent [or those soils with a K value]; or

(b) A K-factor greater than 0.35 and [with slopes] a slope greater than 5 percent.

(31) (text unchanged)

(32) "Hydric [soils] soil" means [soils that are] a soil that is wet frequently enough to periodically produce anaerobic conditions, thereby influencing the species composition or growth, or both, of plants on those soils.

(33) ["Hydrophytic vegetation" means those plants cited in "Vascular Plant Species Occurring in Maryland Wetlands" (Dawson, F. et al., 1985) which are described as growing in water or on a substrate that is at least periodically deficient in oxygen as a result of excessive water content (plants typically found in wet habitats)] Intensely Developed Area.

(a) “Intensely developed area” has the meaning stated in Natural Resources Article, §8-1802(a), Annotated Code of Maryland.

(b) “Intensely developed area” includes the provisions of COMAR 27.01.02.03.

(34) (text unchanged)

(35) ["Land-based aquaculture" means the raising of fish or shell fish in any natural or man-made, enclosed or impounded, water body] “Landward edge” means the limit of a site feature that is farthest away from the mean high water line of tidal waters, from the landward boundary of a tidal wetland, or from the edge of a bank of a tributary stream.

(36) ["Land clearing" means any activity that removes the vegetative ground cover.] Repealed.

(37) ["Landforms" means features of the earth's surface created by natural causes] Limited Development Area.

(a) “Limited development area” has the meaning stated in Natural Resources Article, §8-1802(a), Annotated Code of Maryland.

(b) “Limited development area” includes the provisions of COMAR 27.01.02.04.

(37-1) "Locally significant habitat" means a [plant or wildlife] wildlife or plant habitat that may not be of Statewide significance but, in a local jurisdictions Critical Area program, is considered to be significant in a local or regional context because the habitat contains a species:

(a)—(b) (text unchanged)

(37-2)—(39-1) (text unchanged)

(39-2) Modified Buffer Area.

(a) "Modified buffer area" means an area of land:

(i) Where a pattern of residential, industrial, commercial, or recreational development existed in the [100-foot Buffer] first 100 feet of the buffer on December 1, 1985 in the Chesapeake Bay Critical Area or on June 1, 2002 in the Atlantic Coastal Bays Critical Area; and

(ii) (text unchanged)

(b) (text unchanged)

(40) "Natural features" means components and processes present in or produced by nature, including [but not limited to,] soil types, geology, slopes, vegetation, surface water, drainage patterns, aquifers, recharge areas, climate, [flood plains, aquatic life, and wildlife] a floodplain, and fish, wildlife, and plant habitats.

(41) "Natural heritage area" [means any communities of plants or animals which are considered to be among the best Statewide examples of their kind, and are designated by regulation by the Secretary of the Department of Natural Resources] has the meaning stated in COMAR 08.03.08.01, as designated in COMAR 08.03.08.10.

(42) "Natural vegetation" means [those plant communities that develop] a plant community that develops in the absence of human [activities] activity.

(43) (text unchanged)

(44) "Nonpoint source pollution" means [pollution generated by diffuse land use activities rather than from an identifiable or discrete facility. It is conveyed to waterways through natural processes, such as rainfall, storm runoff, or ground water seepage rather than by deliberate discharge. Nonpoint source pollution is not generally corrected by "end-of-pipe" treatment, but rather, by changes in land management practices] the introduction of a contaminant into the natural environment that is generated by diffuse land use activities and is conveyed to a waterway through natural processes, such as stormwater or groundwater seepage.

(45) (text unchanged)

(46) "Nontidal wetland" has the meaning stated in [COMAR 26.23.01.01] Environment Article, §5-901, Annotated Code of Maryland, and as applied by the Department of the Environment.

(47)—(50) (text unchanged)

(51) ["Physiographic features" means the soils, topography, land slope and aspect, and local climate that influence the form and species composition of plant communities.

(51-1)] (text unchanged)

[(51-2)] (51-1) (text unchanged)

(52) (text unchanged)